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Oregon Bulletin

June 1, 2011

 

Department of Environmental Quality
Chapter 340

Rule Caption: Adoption of Air Quality Permit Program Stream­lining and Updates.

Adm. Order No.: DEQ 5-2011

Filed with Sec. of State: 4-29-2011

Certified to be Effective: 5-1-11

Notice Publication Date: 11-1-2010

Rules Amended: 340-200-0020, 340-200-0025, 340-200-0040, 340-202-0010, 340-202-0060, 340-202-0210, 340-215-0060, 340-216-0020, 340-216-0025, 340-216-0040, 340-216-0052, 340-216-0054, 340-216-0056, 340-216-0060, 340-216-0064, 340-216-0066, 340-216-0070, 340-216-0090, 340-222-0042, 340-222-0045, 340-224-0010, 340-224-0050, 340-224-0060, 340-224-0070, 340-225-0020, 340-225-0030, 340-225-0045, 340-225-0050, 340-225-0060, 340-225-0090, 340-228-0300, 340-246-0230

Subject: PM2.5 New Source Review/Prevention of Significant Deterioration: The EQC amended rules to establish PM2.5 New Source Review/Prevention of Significant Deterioration (NSR/PSD) for fine particles (PM2.5 or particulate matter less than 2.5 microns in diameter.) The rules help DEQ and businesses implement NSR/PSD as the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) intended.

      Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Prevention of Significant Deterioration: The EQC amended Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) rules to include greenhouse gases in response to EPA regulations and clarified NSR/PSD rules to allow DEQ to continue implementing the PSD program in Oregon.

      Small Scale Renewable Energy Sources: EPA requires states to have minor source construction approval programs but gives states flexibility in how to do this. Oregon’s minor source construction approval program basically applies major source NSR/PSD requirements to any source with emissions over the significant emission rate (SER) including some areas where the Oregon SER is lower than the federal SER. HB 2952 revised how the minor source construction approval program works for small scale local energy projects. The EQC amended NSR/PSD rules to incorporate changes to ORS 468A.040 for small scale local energy projects.

      Permitting Rule Updates: Oregon’s permitting rule incorporates the federal acid rain program rules by reference. The EQC amended the permitting rules to reference the federal acid rain rules updated July 2, 2010.

      DEQ will submit these rules to the EPA as a revision to the State Implementation Plan, which is a requirement of the Clean Air Act.

Rules Coordinator: Maggie Vandehey—(503) 229-6878

340-200-0020

General Air Quality Definitions

As used in divisions 200 through 268, unless specifically defined otherwise:

(1) “Act” or “FCAA” means the Federal Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C.A. 7401 to 7671q.

(2) “Activity” means any process, operation, action, or reaction (e.g., chemical) at a source that emits a regulated pollutant.

(3) “Actual emissions” means the mass emissions of a pollutant from an emissions source during a specified time period.

(a) For determining actual emissions as of the baseline period:

(A) Except as provided in paragraphs (B) and (C) of this subsection and subsection (b) of this section, actual emissions equal the average rate at which the source actually emitted the pollutant during an applicable baseline period and that represents normal source operation;

(B) The Department presumes that the source-specific mass emissions limit included in a source’s permit that was effective on September 8, 1981 is equivalent to the source’s actual emissions during the applicable baseline period if it is within 10% of the actual emissions calculated under paragraph (A) of this subsection.

(C) Actual emissions equal the potential to emit of the source for the sources listed in paragraphs (i) through (iii) of this paragraph. The actual emissions will be reset if required in accordance with subsection (c) of this section.

(i) Any source or part of a source that had not begun normal operations during the applicable baseline period but was approved to construct and operate before or during the baseline period in accordance with OAR 340 division 210, or

(ii) Any source or part of a source of greenhouse gases that had not begun normal operations prior to January 1, 2010, but was approved to construct and operate prior to January 1, 2011 in accordance with OAR 340 division 210, or

(iii) Any source or part of a source that had not begun normal operations during the applicable baseline period and was not required to obtain approval to construct and operate before or during the applicable baseline period.

(b) For any source or part of a source that had not begun normal operations during the applicable baseline period, but was approved to construct and operate in accordance with OAR 340 division 224, actual emissions on the date the permit is issued equal the potential to emit of the source. The actual emissions will be reset if required in accordance with subsection (c) of this section.

(c) Where actual emissions equal potential to emit under paragraph (a)(C) or subsection (b) of this section, the potential emissions will be reset to actual emissions as follows:

(A) Paragraphs (A) through (D) of this subsection apply to sources whose actual emissions of greenhouse gases were determined pursuant paragraph 3(a)(C), and to all other sources of all other regulated pollutants that are permitted in accordance with OAR division 224 on or after May 1, 2011.

(B) Except as provided in paragraph (D) of this subsection, ten years from the end of the applicable baseline period under paragraph (a)(C) or ten years from the date the permit is issued under subsection (b), or an earlier time if requested by the source in a permit application involving pubic notice, the Department will reset actual emissions to equal the highest actual emission rate during any consecutive 12-month period during the ten year period or any shorter period if requested by the source.

(C) Any emission reductions achieved due to enforceable permit conditions based on OAR 340-226-0110 and 0120 (highest and best practicable treatment and control) are not included in the reset calculation required in paragraph (B) of this subsection.

(D) The Department may extend the date of resetting by five additional years upon satisfactory demonstration by the source that construction is ongoing or normal operation has not yet been achieved.

(d) For determining actual emissions for Emission Statements under OAR 340-214-0200 through 340-214-0220 and Oregon Title V Operating Permit Fees under OAR 340 division 220, actual emissions include, but are not limited to, routine process emissions, fugitive emissions, excess emissions from maintenance, startups and shutdowns, equipment malfunction, and other activities, except categorically insignificant activities and secondary emissions.

(e) For Oregon Title V Operating Permit Fees under OAR 340 division 220, actual emissions must be directly measured with a continuous monitoring system or calculated using a material balance or verified emission factor determined in accordance with division 220 in combination with the source’s actual operating hours, production rates, or types of materials processed, stored, or combusted during the specified time period.

(4) “Adjacent” means interdependent facilities that are nearby to each other.

(5) “Affected source” means a source that includes one or more affected units that are subject to emission reduction requirements or limitations under Title IV of the FCAA.

(6) “Affected states” means all states:

(a) Whose air quality may be affected by a proposed permit, permit modification, or permit renewal and that are contiguous to Oregon; or

(b) That are within 50 miles of the permitted source.

(7) “Aggregate insignificant emissions” means the annual actual emissions of any regulated air pollutant from one or more designated activities at a source that are less than or equal to the lowest applicable level specified in this section. The total emissions from each designated activity and the aggregate emissions from all designated activities must be less than or equal to the lowest applicable level specified.

(a) One ton for total reduced sulfur, hydrogen sulfide, sulfuric acid mist, any Class I or II substance subject to a standard promulgated under or established by Title VI of the Act, and each criteria pollutant, except lead;

(b) 120 pounds for lead;

(c) 600 pounds for fluoride;

(d) 500 pounds for PM10 in a PM10 nonattainment area;

(e) 500 pounds for direct PM2.5 in a PM2.5 nonattainment area;

(f) The lesser of the amount established in OAR 340-244-0040, Table 1 or 340-244-0230, Table 3, or 1,000 pounds;

(g) An aggregate of 5,000 pounds for all Hazardous Air Pollutants;

(h) 2,756 tons CO2e for greenhouse gases.

(8) “Air Contaminant” means a dust, fume, gas, mist, odor, smoke, vapor, pollen, soot, carbon, acid or particulate matter, or any combination thereof.

(9) “Air Contaminant Discharge Permit” or “ACDP” means a written permit issued, renewed, amended, or revised by the Department, pursuant to OAR 340 division 216.

(10) “Alternative method” means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant that is not a reference or equivalent method but has been demonstrated to the Department’s satisfaction to, in specific cases, produce results adequate for determination of compliance. An alternative method used to meet an applicable federal requirement for which a reference method is specified must be approved by EPA unless EPA has delegated authority for the approval to the Department.

(11) “Ambient Air” means that portion of the atmosphere, external to buildings, to which the general public has access.

(12) “Applicable requirement” means all of the following as they apply to emissions units in an Oregon Title V Operating Permit program source or ACDP program source, including requirements that have been promulgated or approved by the EPA through rule making at the time of issuance but have future-effective compliance dates:

(a) Any standard or other requirement provided for in the applicable implementation plan approved or promulgated by the EPA through rulemaking under Title I of the Act that implements the relevant requirements of the Act, including any revisions to that plan promulgated in 40 CFR Part 52;

(b) Any standard or other requirement adopted under OAR 340-200-0040 of the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan, that is more stringent than the federal standard or requirement which has not yet been approved by the EPA, and other state-only enforceable air pollution control requirements;

(c) Any term or condition in an ACDP, OAR 340 division 216, including any term or condition of any preconstruction permits issued pursuant to OAR 340 division 224, New Source Review, until or unless the Department revokes or modifies the term or condition by a permit modification;

(d) Any term or condition in a Notice of Construction and Approval of Plans, OAR 340-210-0205 through 340-210-0240, until or unless the Department revokes or modifies the term or condition by a Notice of Construction and Approval of Plans or a permit modification;

(e) Any term or condition in a Notice of Approval, OAR 340-218-0190, issued before July 1, 2001, until or unless the Department revokes or modifies the term or condition by a Notice of Approval or a permit modification;

(f) Any term or condition of a PSD permit issued by the EPA until or unless the EPA revokes or modifies the term or condition by a permit modification;

(g) Any standard or other requirement under section 111 of the Act, including section 111(d);

(h) Any standard or other requirement under section 112 of the Act, including any requirement concerning accident prevention under section 112(r)(7) of the Act;

(i) Any standard or other requirement of the acid rain program under Title IV of the Act or the regulations promulgated thereunder;

(j) Any requirements established pursuant to section 504(b) or section 114(a)(3) of the Act;

(k) Any standard or other requirement under section 126(a)(1) and(c) of the Act;

(l) Any standard or other requirement governing solid waste incineration, under section 129 of the Act;

(m) Any standard or other requirement for consumer and commercial products, under section 183(e) of the Act;

(n) Any standard or other requirement for tank vessels, under section 183(f) of the Act;

(o) Any standard or other requirement of the program to control air pollution from outer continental shelf sources, under section 328 of the Act;

(p) Any standard or other requirement of the regulations promulgated to protect stratospheric ozone under Title VI of the Act, unless the Administrator has determined that such requirements need not be contained in an Oregon Title V Operating Permit; and

(q) Any national ambient air quality standard or increment or visibility requirement under part C of Title I of the Act, but only as it would apply to temporary sources permitted pursuant to section 504(e) of the Act.

(13) “Baseline Emission Rate” means the actual emission rate during a baseline period. Baseline emission rate does not include increases due to voluntary fuel switches or increased hours of operation that occurred after that baseline period.

(a) A baseline emission rate will be established only for regulated pollutants subject to OAR 340 division 224 as specified in the definition of regulated pollutant. A baseline emission rate will not be established for PM2.5.

(b) The baseline emission rate for greenhouse gases, on a CO2e basis, will be established with the first permitting action issued after July 1, 2011, provided the permitting action involved a public notice period that began after July 1, 2011.

(c) For a pollutant that becomes a regulated pollutant subject to OAR 340 division 224 after May 1, 2011, the initial baseline emission rate is the actual emissions of that pollutant during any consecutive 12 month period within the 24 months immediately preceding its designation as a regulated pollutant if a baseline period has not been defined for the pollutant.

(d) The baseline emission rate will be recalculated if actual emissions are reset in accordance with the definition of actual emissions.

 (e) Once the baseline emission rate has been established or recalculated in accordance with subsection (d) of this section, the production basis for the baseline emission rate may only be changed if a material mistake or an inaccurate statement was made in establishing the production basis for baseline emission rate.

(14) “Baseline Period” means:

(a) Any consecutive 12 calendar month period during the calendar years 1977 or 1978 for any regulated pollutant other than greenhouse gases. The Department may allow the use of a prior time period upon a determination that it is more representative of normal source operation.

(b) Any consecutive 12 calendar month period during the calendar years 2000 through 2010 for greenhouse gases.

(15) “Best Available Control Technology” or “BACT” means an emission limitation, including, but not limited to, a visible emission standard, based on the maximum degree of reduction of each air contaminant subject to regulation under the Act which would be emitted from any proposed major source or major modification which, on a case-by-case basis, taking into account energy, environmental, and economic impacts and other costs, is achievable for such source or modification through application of production processes or available methods, systems, and techniques, including fuel cleaning or treatment or innovative fuel combustion techniques for control of such air contaminant. In no event may the application of BACT result in emissions of any air contaminant that would exceed the emissions allowed by any applicable new source performance standard or any standard for hazardous air pollutant. If an emission limitation is not feasible, a design, equipment, work practice, or operational standard, or combination thereof, may be required. Such standard must, to the degree possible, set forth the emission reduction achievable and provide for compliance by prescribing appropriate permit conditions.

(16) “Biomass” means non-fossilized and biodegradable organic material originating from plants, animals, and micro-organisms, including products, byproducts, residues and waste from agriculture, forestry, and related industries as well as the non-fossilized and biodegradable organic fractions of industrial and municipal wastes, including gases and liquids recovered from the decomposition of non-fossilized and biodegradable organic matter.

(17) “Capacity” means the maximum regulated pollutant emissions from a stationary source under its physical and operational design.

(18) “Capture system” means the equipment (including but not limited to hoods, ducts, fans, and booths) used to contain, capture and transport a pollutant to a control device.

(19) “Carbon dioxide equivalent” or “CO2e” means an amount of a greenhouse gas or gases expressed as the equivalent amount of carbon dioxide, and shall be computed by multiplying the mass of each of the greenhouse gases by the global warming potential published for each gas at 40 CFR Part 98, subpart A, Table A–1—Global Warming Potentials, and adding the resulting value for each greenhouse gas to compute the total equivalent amount of carbon dioxide. (20) “Categorically insignificant activity” means any of the following listed pollutant emitting activities principally supporting the source or the major industrial group. Categorically insignificant activities must comply with all applicable requirements.

(a) Constituents of a chemical mixture present at less than 1% by weight of any chemical or compound regulated under divisions 200 through 268 excluding divisions 248 and 262 of this chapter, or less than 0.1% by weight of any carcinogen listed in the U.S. Department of Health and Human Service’s Annual Report on Carcinogens when usage of the chemical mixture is less than 100,000 pounds/year;

(b) Evaporative and tail pipe emissions from on-site motor vehicle operation;

(c) Distillate oil, kerosene, and gasoline fuel burning equipment rated at less than or equal to 0.4 million Btu/hr;

(d) Natural gas and propane burning equipment rated at less than or equal to 2.0 million Btu/hr;

(e) Office activities;

(f) Food service activities;

(g) Janitorial activities;

(h) Personal care activities;

(i) Groundskeeping activities including, but not limited to building painting and road and parking lot maintenance;

(j) On-site laundry activities;

(k) On-site recreation facilities;

(l) Instrument calibration;

(m) Maintenance and repair shop;

(n) Automotive repair shops or storage garages;

(o) Air cooling or ventilating equipment not designed to remove air contaminants generated by or released from associated equipment;

(p) Refrigeration systems with less than 50 pounds of charge of ozone depleting substances regulated under Title VI, including pressure tanks used in refrigeration systems but excluding any combustion equipment associated with such systems;

(q) Bench scale laboratory equipment and laboratory equipment used exclusively for chemical and physical analysis, including associated vacuum producing devices but excluding research and development facilities;

(r) Temporary construction activities;

(s) Warehouse activities;

(t) Accidental fires;

(u) Air vents from air compressors;

(v) Air purification systems;

(w) Continuous emissions monitoring vent lines;

(x) Demineralized water tanks;

(y) Pre-treatment of municipal water, including use of deionized water purification systems;

(z) Electrical charging stations;

(aa) Fire brigade training;

(bb) Instrument air dryers and distribution;

(cc) Process raw water filtration systems;

(dd) Pharmaceutical packaging;

(ee) Fire suppression;

(ff) Blueprint making;

(gg) Routine maintenance, repair, and replacement such as anticipated activities most often associated with and performed during regularly scheduled equipment outages to maintain a plant and its equipment in good operating condition, including but not limited to steam cleaning, abrasive use, and woodworking;

(hh) Electric motors;

(ii) Storage tanks, reservoirs, transfer and lubricating equipment used for ASTM grade distillate or residual fuels, lubricants, and hydraulic fluids;

(jj) On-site storage tanks not subject to any New Source Performance Standards (NSPS), including underground storage tanks (UST), storing gasoline or diesel used exclusively for fueling of the facility’s fleet of vehicles;

(kk) Natural gas, propane, and liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) storage tanks and transfer equipment;

(ll) Pressurized tanks containing gaseous compounds;

(mm) Vacuum sheet stacker vents;

(nn) Emissions from wastewater discharges to publicly owned treatment works (POTW) provided the source is authorized to discharge to the POTW, not including on-site wastewater treatment and/or holding facilities;

(oo) Log ponds;

(pp) Storm water settling basins;

(qq) Fire suppression and training;

(rr) Paved roads and paved parking lots within an urban growth boundary;

(ss) Hazardous air pollutant emissions of fugitive dust from paved and unpaved roads except for those sources that have processes or activities that contribute to the deposition and entrainment of hazardous air pollutants from surface soils;

(tt) Health, safety, and emergency response activities;

(uu) Emergency generators and pumps used only during loss of primary equipment or utility service due to circumstances beyond the reasonable control of the owner or operator, or to address a power emergency as determined by the Department;

(vv) Non-contact steam vents and leaks and safety and relief valves for boiler steam distribution systems;

(ww) Non-contact steam condensate flash tanks;

(xx) Non-contact steam vents on condensate receivers, deaerators and similar equipment;

(yy) Boiler blowdown tanks;

(zz) Industrial cooling towers that do not use chromium-based water treatment chemicals;

(aaa) Ash piles maintained in a wetted condition and associated handling systems and activities;

(bbb) Oil/water separators in effluent treatment systems;

(ccc) Combustion source flame safety purging on startup;

(ddd) Broke beaters, pulp and repulping tanks, stock chests and pulp handling equipment, excluding thickening equipment and repulpers;

(eee) Stock cleaning and pressurized pulp washing, excluding open stock washing systems; and

(fff) White water storage tanks.

(21) “Certifying individual” means the responsible person or official authorized by the owner or operator of a source who certifies the accuracy of the emission statement.

(22) “CFR” means Code of Federal Regulations.

(23) “Class I area” means any Federal, State or Indian reservation land which is classified or reclassified as Class I area. Class I areas are identified in OAR 340-204-0050.

(24) “Commence” or “commencement” means that the owner or operator has obtained all necessary preconstruction approvals required by the Act and either has:

(a) Begun, or caused to begin, a continuous program of actual on-site construction of the source to be completed in a reasonable time; or

(b) Entered into binding agreements or contractual obligations, which cannot be canceled or modified without substantial loss to the owner or operator, to undertake a program of construction of the source to be completed in a reasonable time.

(25) “Commission” or “EQC” means Environmental Quality Commission.

(26) “Constant Process Rate” means the average variation in process rate for the calendar year is not greater than plus or minus ten percent of the average process rate.

(27) “Construction”:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section means any physical change including, but not limited to, fabrication, erection, installation, demolition, or modification of a source or part of a source;

(b) As used in OAR 340 division 224 means any physical change including, but not limited to, fabrication, erection, installation, demolition, or modification of an emissions unit, or change in the method of operation of a source which would result in a change in actual emissions.

(28) “Continuous compliance determination method” means a method, specified by the applicable standard or an applicable permit condition, which:

(a) Is used to determine compliance with an emission limitation or standard on a continuous basis, consistent with the averaging period established for the emission limitation or standard; and

(b) Provides data either in units of the standard or correlated directly with the compliance limit.

(29) “Continuous Monitoring Systems” means sampling and analysis, in a timed sequence, using techniques which will adequately reflect actual emissions or concentrations on a continuing basis in accordance with the Department’s Continuous Monitoring Manual, and includes continuous emission monitoring systems, continuous opacity monitoring system (COMS) and continuous parameter monitoring systems.

(30) “Control device” means equipment, other than inherent process equipment, that is used to destroy or remove air pollutant(s) prior to discharge to the atmosphere. The types of equipment that may commonly be used as control devices include, but are not limited to, fabric filters, mechanical collectors, electrostatic precipitators, inertial separators, afterburners, thermal or catalytic incinerators, adsorption devices(such as carbon beds), condensers, scrubbers(such as wet collection and gas absorption devices), selective catalytic or non-catalytic reduction systems, flue gas recirculation systems, spray dryers, spray towers, mist eliminators, acid plants, sulfur recovery plants, injection systems(such as water, steam, ammonia, sorbent or limestone injection), and combustion devices independent of the particular process being conducted at an emissions unit(e.g., the destruction of emissions achieved by venting process emission streams to flares, boilers or process heaters). For purposes of OAR 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280, a control device does not include passive control measures that act to prevent pollutants from forming, such as the use of seals, lids, or roofs to prevent the release of pollutants, use of low-polluting fuel or feedstocks, or the use of combustion or other process design features or characteristics. If an applicable requirement establishes that particular equipment which otherwise meets this definition of a control device does not constitute a control device as applied to a particular pollutant-specific emissions unit, then that definition will be binding for purposes of OAR 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280.

(31) “Criteria Pollutant” means nitrogen oxides, volatile organic compounds, particulate matter, PM10, PM2.5, sulfur dioxide, carbon monoxide, or lead.

(32) “Data” means the results of any type of monitoring or method, including the results of instrumental or non-instrumental monitoring, emission calculations, manual sampling procedures, recordkeeping procedures, or any other form of information collection procedure used in connection with any type of monitoring or method.

(33) “De minimis emission levels” mean the levels for the pollutants listed in Table 4.

NOTE: De minimis is compared to all increases that are not included in the PSEL.

(34) “Department”:

(a) Means Department of Environmental Quality; except

(b) As used in OAR 340 divisions 218 and 220 means Department of Environmental Quality or in the case of Lane County, Lane Regional Air Protection Agency.

(35) “Device” means any machine, equipment, raw material, product, or byproduct at a source that produces or emits a regulated pollutant.

(36) “Direct PM2.5” has the meaning provided in the definition of PM2.5.

(37) “Director” means the Director of the Department or the Director’s designee.

(38) “Draft permit” means the version of an Oregon Title V Operating Permit for which the Department or Lane Regional Air Protection Agency offers public participation under OAR 340-218-0210 or the EPA and affected State review under 340-218-0230.

(39) “Effective date of the program” means the date that the EPA approves the Oregon Title V Operating Permit program submitted by the Department on a full or interim basis. In case of a partial approval, the “effective date of the program” for each portion of the program is the date of the EPA approval of that portion.

(40) “Emergency” means any situation arising from sudden and reasonably unforeseeable events beyond the control of the owner or operator, including acts of God, which situation requires immediate corrective action to restore normal operation, and that causes the source to exceed a technology-based emission limitation under the permit, due to unavoidable increases in emissions attributable to the emergency. An emergency does not include noncompliance to the extent caused by improperly designed equipment, lack of preventative maintenance, careless or improper operation, or operator error.

(41) “Emission” means a release into the atmosphere of any regulated pollutant or any air contaminant.

(42) “Emission Estimate Adjustment Factor” or “EEAF” means an adjustment applied to an emission factor to account for the relative inaccuracy of the emission factor.

(43) “Emission Factor” means an estimate of the rate at which a pollutant is released into the atmosphere, as the result of some activity, divided by the rate of that activity (e.g., production or process rate).

(44)(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, “Emission Limitation” and “Emission Standard” mean a requirement established by a State, local government, or the EPA which limits the quantity, rate, or concentration of emissions of air pollutants on a continuous basis, including any requirements which limit the level of opacity, prescribe equipment, set fuel specifications, or prescribe operation or maintenance procedures for a source to assure continuous emission reduction.

(b) As used in OAR 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280, “Emission limitation or standard” means any applicable requirement that constitutes an emission limitation, emission standard, standard of performance or means of emission limitation as defined under the Act. An emission limitation or standard may be expressed in terms of the pollutant, expressed either as a specific quantity, rate or concentration of emissions (e.g., pounds of SO2 per hour, pounds of SO2 per million British thermal units of fuel input, kilograms of VOC per liter of applied coating solids, or parts per million by volume of SO2) or as the relationship of uncontrolled to controlled emissions (e.g., percentage capture and destruction efficiency of VOC or percentage reduction of SO2). An emission limitation or standard may also be expressed either as a work practice, process or control device parameter, or other form of specific design, equipment, operational, or operation and maintenance requirement. For purposes of 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280, an emission limitation or standard does not include general operation requirements that an owner or operator may be required to meet, such as requirements to obtain a permit, to operate and maintain sources in accordance with good air pollution control practices, to develop and maintain a malfunction abatement plan, to keep records, submit reports, or conduct monitoring.

(45) “Emission Reduction Credit Banking” means to presently reserve, subject to requirements of OAR 340 division 268, Emission Reduction Credits, emission reductions for use by the reserver or assignee for future compliance with air pollution reduction requirements.

(46) “Emission Reporting Form” means a paper or electronic form developed by the Department that must be completed by the permittee to report calculated emissions, actual emissions, or permitted emissions for interim emission fee assessment purposes.

(47) “Emissions unit” means any part or activity of a source that emits or has the potential to emit any regulated air pollutant.

(a) A part of a source is any machine, equipment, raw material, product, or byproduct that produces or emits regulated air pollutants. An activity is any process, operation, action, or reaction (e.g., chemical) at a stationary source that emits regulated air pollutants. Except as described in subsection (d) of this section, parts and activities may be grouped for purposes of defining an emissions unit if the following conditions are met:

(A) The group used to define the emissions unit may not include discrete parts or activities to which a distinct emissions standard applies or for which different compliance demonstration requirements apply; and

(B) The emissions from the emissions unit are quantifiable.

(b) Emissions units may be defined on a pollutant by pollutant basis where applicable.

(c) The term emissions unit is not meant to alter or affect the definition of the term “unit” under Title IV of the FCAA.

(d) Parts and activities cannot be grouped for determining emissions increases from an emissions unit under OAR 340-224-0050 through 340-224-0070, or 340 division 210, or for determining the applicability of any New Source Performance Standard (NSPS).

(48) “EPA” or “Administrator” means the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency or the Administrator’s designee.

(49) “Equivalent method” means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant that has been demonstrated to the Department’s satisfaction to have a consistent and quantitatively known relationship to the reference method, under specified conditions. An equivalent method used to meet an applicable federal requirement for which a reference method is specified must be approved by EPA unless EPA has delegated authority for the approval to the Department.

(50) “Event” means excess emissions that arise from the same condition and occur during a single calendar day or continue into subsequent calendar days.

(51) “Exceedance” means a condition that is detected by monitoring that provides data in terms of an emission limitation or standard and that indicates that emissions (or opacity) are greater than the applicable emission limitation or standard(or less than the applicable standard in the case of a percent reduction requirement) consistent with any averaging period specified for averaging the results of the monitoring.

(52) “Excess emissions” means emissions in excess of a permit limit or any applicable air quality rule.

(53) “Excursion” means a departure from an indicator range established for monitoring under OAR 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280 and 340-218-0050(3)(a), consistent with any averaging period specified for averaging the results of the monitoring.

(54) “Federal Land Manager” means with respect to any lands in the United States, the Secretary of the federal department with authority over such lands.

(55) “Federal Major Source” means a source with potential to emit any individual regulated pollutant, excluding hazardous air pollutants listed in OAR 340 division 244, greater than or equal to 100 tons per year if in a source category listed below, or 250 tons per year if not in a source category listed. In addition, for greenhouse gases, a federal major source must also have the potential to emit CO2e greater than or equal to 100,000 tons per year. The fugitive emissions and insignificant activity emissions of a stationary source are considered in determining whether it is a federal major source. Potential to emit calculations must include emission increases due to a new or modified source and may include emission decreases.

(a) Fossil fuel-fired steam electric plants of more than 250 million BTU/hour heat input;

(b) Coal cleaning plants with thermal dryers;

(c) Kraft pulp mills;

(d) Portland cement plants;

(e) Primary Zinc Smelters;

(f) Iron and Steel Mill Plants;

(g) Primary aluminum ore reduction plants;

(h) Primary copper smelters;

(i) Municipal Incinerators capable of charging more than 50 tons of refuse per day;

(j) Hydrofluoric acid plants;

(k) Sulfuric acid plants;

(l) Nitric acid plants;

(m) Petroleum Refineries;

(n) Lime plants;

(o) Phosphate rock processing plants;

(p) Coke oven batteries;

(q) Sulfur recovery plants;

(r) Carbon black plants, furnace process;

(s) Primary lead smelters;

(t) Fuel conversion plants;

(u) Sintering plants;

(v) Secondary metal production plants;

(w) Chemical process plants;

(x) Fossil fuel fired boilers, or combinations thereof, totaling more than 250 million BTU per hour heat input;

(y) Petroleum storage and transfer units with a total storage capacity exceeding 300,000 barrels;

(z) Taconite ore processing plants;

(aa) Glass fiber processing plants;

(bb) Charcoal production plants.

(56) “Final permit” means the version of an Oregon Title V Operating Permit issued by the Department or Lane Regional Air Protection Agency that has completed all review procedures required by OAR 340-218-0120 through 340-218-0240.

(57) “Fugitive Emissions”:

(a) Except as used in subsection (b) of this section, means emissions of any air contaminant which escape to the atmosphere from any point or area that is not identifiable as a stack, vent, duct, or equivalent opening.

(b) As used to define a major Oregon Title V Operating Permit program source, means those emissions which could not reasonably pass through a stack, chimney, vent, or other functionally equivalent opening.

(58) “General permit”:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, means an Oregon Air Contaminant Discharge Permit established under OAR 340-216-0060;

(b) As used in OAR 340 division 218 means an Oregon Title V Operating Permit established under OAR 340-218-0090.

(59) “Generic PSEL” means the levels for the pollutants listed in Table 5.

NOTE: Sources are eligible for a generic PSEL if expected emissions are less than or equal to the levels listed in Table 5. Baseline emission rate and netting basis do not apply to pollutants at sources using generic PSELs.

(60)(a) “Greenhouse Gases” or “GHGs” means the aggregate group of six greenhouse gases: carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide, methane, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, and sulfur hexafluoride. Each gas is also individually a greenhouse gas.

(b) The definition of greenhouse gases in subsection (a) of this section does not include, for purposes of division 216, 218, and 224, carbon dioxide emissions from the combustion or decomposition of biomass except to the extent required by federal law.

(61) “Growth Allowance” means an allocation of some part of an airshed’s capacity to accommodate future proposed major sources and major modifications of sources.

(62) “Immediately” means as soon as possible but in no case more than one hour after a source knew or should have known of an excess emission period.

(63) “Inherent process equipment” means equipment that is necessary for the proper or safe functioning of the process, or material recovery equipment that the owner or operator documents is installed and operated primarily for purposes other than compliance with air pollution regulations. Equipment that must be operated at an efficiency higher than that achieved during normal process operations in order to comply with the applicable emission limitation or standard is not inherent process equipment. For the purposes of OAR 340-212-0200 through 340-212-0280, inherent process equipment is not considered a control device.

(64) “Insignificant Activity” means an activity or emission that the Department has designated as categorically insignificant, or that meets the criteria of aggregate insignificant emissions.

(65) “Insignificant Change” means an off-permit change defined under OAR 340-218-0140(2)(a) to either a significant or an insignificant activity which:

(a) Does not result in a re-designation from an insignificant to a significant activity;

(b) Does not invoke an applicable requirement not included in the permit; and

(c) Does not result in emission of regulated air pollutants not regulated by the source’s permit.

(66) “Late Payment” means a fee payment which is postmarked after the due date.

(67) “Lowest Achievable Emission Rate” or “LAER” means that rate of emissions which reflects: the most stringent emission limitation which is contained in the implementation plan of any state for such class or category of source, unless the owner or operator of the proposed source demonstrates that such limitations are not achievable; or the most stringent emission limitation which is achieved in practice by such class or category of source, whichever is more stringent. The application of this term cannot permit a proposed new or modified source to emit any air contaminant in excess of the amount allowable under applicable New Source Performance Standards (NSPS) or standards for hazardous air pollutants.

(68) “Maintenance Area” means a geographical area of the State that was designated as a nonattainment area, redesignated as an attainment area by EPA, and redesignated as a maintenance area by the Environmental Quality Commission in OAR 340, division 204.

(69) “Maintenance Pollutant” means a pollutant for which a maintenance area was formerly designated a nonattainment area.

(70) “Major Modification” means any physical change or change in the method of operation of a source that results in satisfying the requirements of both subsections (a) and (b) of this section, or of subsection (c) of this section for any regulated air pollutant. Major modifications for ozone precursors or PM2.5 precursors also constitute major modifications for ozone and PM2.5, respectively.

(a) Except as provided in subsection (d) of this section, a PSEL that exceeds the netting basis by an amount that is equal to or greater than the significant emission rate.

(b) The accumulation of emission increases due to physical changes and changes in the method of operation as determined in accordance with paragraphs (A) and (B) of this subsection is equal to or greater than the significant emission rate.

(A) Calculations of emission increases in subsection (b) of this section must account for all accumulated increases in actual emissions due to physical changes and changes in the method of operation occurring at the source since the applicable baseline period, or since the time of the last construction approval issued for the source pursuant to the New Source Review Regulations in OAR 340 division 224 for that pollutant, whichever time is more recent. These include fugitive emissions and emissions from insignificant activities.

(B) Emission increases due solely to increased use of equipment or facilities that existed or were permitted or approved to construct in accordance with OAR 340 division 210 during the applicable baseline period are not included, except if the increased use is to support a physical change or change in the method of operation.

 (c) Any change at a source, including production increases, that would result in a Plant Site Emission Limit increase of 1 ton or more for any regulated pollutant for which the source is a major source in nonattainment or maintenance areas or a federal major source in attainment or unclassified areas, if the source obtained permits to construct and operate after the applicable baseline period but has not undergone New Source Review.

(A) Subsection (c) of this section does not apply to PM2.5 and greenhouse gases.

(B) Changes to the PSEL solely due to the availability of better emissions information are exempt from being considered an increase.

(d) If a portion of the netting basis or PSEL (or both) was set based on PTE because the source had not begun normal operations but was permitted or approved to construct and operate, that portion of the netting basis or PSEL (or both) must be excluded from the tests in subsections (a) and (b) of this section until the netting basis is reset as specified in the definitions of baseline emission rate and netting basis.

(e) The following are not considered major modifications:

(A) Except as provided in subsection (c) of this section, proposed increases in hours of operation or production rates that would cause emission increases above the levels allowed in a permit and would not involve a physical change or change in method of operation in the source;

(B) Routine maintenance, repair, and replacement of components;

(C) Temporary equipment installed for maintenance of the permanent equipment if the temporary equipment is in place for less than six months and operated within the permanent equipment’s existing PSEL;

(D) Use of alternate fuel or raw materials, that were available and the source was capable of accommodating in the baseline period.

(71) “Major Source”:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, means a source that emits, or has the potential to emit, any regulated air pollutant at a Significant Emission Rate. The fugitive emissions and insignificant activity emissions of a stationary source are considered in determining whether it is a major source. Potential to emit calculations must include emission increases due to a new or modified source and may include emission decreases.

(b) As used in OAR 340 division 210, Stationary Source Notification Requirements, OAR 340 division 218, rules applicable to sources required to have Oregon Title V Operating Permits, OAR 340 division 220, Oregon Title V Operating Permit Fees, and 340-216-0066 Standard ACDPs, means any stationary source (or any group of stationary sources that are located on one or more contiguous or adjacent properties and are under common control of the same person (or persons under common control)) belonging to a single major industrial grouping or supporting the major industrial group and that is described in paragraphs (A), (B), (C) or (D) of this subsection. For the purposes of this subsection, a stationary source or group of stationary sources is considered part of a single industrial grouping if all of the pollutant emitting activities at such source or group of sources on contiguous or adjacent properties belong to the same Major Group (i.e., all have the same two-digit code) as described in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual (U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 1987) or support the major industrial group.

(A) A major source of hazardous air pollutants, which means:

(i) For pollutants other than radionuclides, any stationary source or group of stationary sources located within a contiguous area and under common control that emits or has the potential to emit, in the aggregate, 10 tons per year (tpy) or more of any hazardous air pollutants that has been listed pursuant to OAR 340-244-0040; 25 tpy or more of any combination of such hazardous air pollutants, or such lesser quantity as the Administrator may establish by rule. Emissions from any oil or gas exploration or production well, along with its associated equipment, and emissions from any pipeline compressor or pump station will not be aggregated with emissions from other similar units, whether or not such units are in a contiguous area or under common control, to determine whether such units or stations are major sources; or

(ii) For radionuclides, “major source” will have the meaning specified by the Administrator by rule.

(B) A major stationary source of air pollutants, as defined in section 302 of the Act, that directly emits or has the potential to emit 100 tpy or more of any regulated air pollutant, except greenhouse gases, including any major source of fugitive emissions of any such pollutant. The fugitive emissions of a stationary source are not considered in determining whether it is a major stationary source for the purposes of section 302(j) of the Act, unless the source belongs to one of the following categories of stationary source:

(i) Coal cleaning plants (with thermal dryers);

(ii) Kraft pulp mills;

(iii) Portland cement plants;

(iv) Primary zinc smelters;

(v) Iron and steel mills;

(vi) Primary aluminum ore reduction plants;

(vii) Primary copper smelters;

(viii) Municipal incinerators capable of charging more than 50 tons of refuse per day;

(ix) Hydrofluoric, sulfuric, or nitric acid plants;

(x) Petroleum refineries;

(xi) Lime plants;

(xii) Phosphate rock processing plants;

(xiii) Coke oven batteries;

(xiv) Sulfur recovery plants;

(xv) Carbon black plants(furnace process);

(xvi) Primary lead smelters;

(xvii) Fuel conversion plants;

(xviii) Sintering plants;

(xix) Secondary metal production plants;

(xx) Chemical process plants;

(xxi) Fossil-fuel boilers, or combination thereof, totaling more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input;

(xxii) Petroleum storage and transfer units with a total storage capacity exceeding 300,000 barrels;

(xxiii) Taconite ore processing plants;

(xxiv) Glass fiber processing plants;

(xxv) Charcoal production plants;

(xxvi) Fossil-fuel-fired steam electric plants of more than 250 million British thermal units per hour heat input; or

(xxvii) Any other stationary source category, that as of August 7, 1980 is being regulated under section 111 or 112 of the Act.

(C) Beginning July 1, 2011, a major stationary source of air pollutants, as defined by Section 302 of the Act, that directly emits or has the potential to emit 100 tpy or more of greenhouse gases and directly emits or has the potential to emit 100,000 tpy or more CO2e, including fugitive emissions.

(D) A major stationary source as defined in part D of Title I of the Act, including:

(i) For ozone nonattainment areas, sources with the potential to emit 100 tpy or more of VOCs or oxides of nitrogen in areas classified as “marginal” or “moderate,” 50 tpy or more in areas classified as “serious,” 25 tpy or more in areas classified as “severe,” and 10 tpy or more in areas classified as “extreme”; except that the references in this paragraph of this subsection to 100, 50, 25, and 10 tpy of nitrogen oxides do not apply with respect to any source for which the Administrator has made a finding, under section 182(f)(1) or (2) of the Act, that requirements under section 182(f) of the Act do not apply;

(ii) For ozone transport regions established pursuant to section 184 of the Act, sources with the potential to emit 50 tpy or more of VOCs;

(iii) For carbon monoxide nonattainment areas:

(I) That are classified as “serious”; and

(II) In which stationary sources contribute significantly to carbon monoxide levels as determined under rules issued by the Administrator, sources with the potential to emit 50 tpy or more of carbon monoxide.

(iv) For particulate matter(PM10) nonattainment areas classified as “serious,” sources with the potential to emit 70 tpy or more of PM10.

(72) “Material Balance” means a procedure for determining emissions based on the difference in the amount of material added to a process and the amount consumed and/or recovered from a process.

(73) “Modification,” except as used in the term “major modification,” means any physical change to, or change in the method of operation of, a stationary source that results in an increase in the stationary source’s potential to emit any regulated air pollutant on an hourly basis. Modifications do not include the following:

(a) Increases in hours of operation or production rates that do not involve a physical change or change in the method of operation;

(b) Changes in the method of operation due to using an alternative fuel or raw material that the stationary source was physically capable of accommodating during the baseline period; and

(c) Routine maintenance, repair and like-for-like replacement of components unless they increase the expected life of the stationary source by using component upgrades that would not otherwise be necessary for the stationary source to function.

(74) “Monitoring” means any form of collecting data on a routine basis to determine or otherwise assess compliance with emission limitations or standards. Monitoring may include record keeping if the records are used to determine or assess compliance with an emission limitation or standard (such as records of raw material content and usage, or records documenting compliance with work practice requirements). Monitoring may include conducting compliance method tests, such as the procedures in appendix A to 40 CFR part 60, on a routine periodic basis. Requirements to conduct such tests on a one-time basis, or at such times as a regulatory authority may require on a non-regular basis, are not considered monitoring requirements for purposes of this definition. Monitoring may include one or more than one of the following data collection techniques as appropriate for a particular circumstance:

(a) Continuous emission or opacity monitoring systems.

(b) Continuous process, capture system, control device or other relevant parameter monitoring systems or procedures, including a predictive emission monitoring system.

(c) Emission estimation and calculation procedures (e.g., mass balance or stoichiometric calculations).

(d) Maintaining and analyzing records of fuel or raw materials usage.

(e) Recording results of a program or protocol to conduct specific operation and maintenance procedures.

(f) Verifying emissions, process parameters, capture system parameters, or control device parameters using portable or in situ measurement devices.

(g) Visible emission observations and recording.

(h) Any other form of measuring, recording, or verifying on a routine basis emissions, process parameters, capture system parameters, control device parameters or other factors relevant to assessing compliance with emission limitations or standards.

(75) “Netting Basis” means the baseline emission rate MINUS any emission reductions required by rule, orders, or permit conditions required by the SIP or used to avoid SIP requirements, MINUS any unassigned emissions that are reduced from allowable under OAR 340-222-0045, MINUS any emission reduction credits transferred off site, PLUS any emission increases approved through the New Source Review regulations in OAR 340 division 224 MINUS any emissions reductions required by subsection (g) of this section.

(a) A netting basis will only be established for regulated pollutants subject to OAR 340 division 224 as specified in the definition of regulated pollutant.

(b) The initial PM2.5 netting basis and PSEL for a source that was permitted prior to May 1, 2011 will be established with the first permitting action issued after July 1, 2011, provided the permitting action involved a public notice period that began after July 1, 2011.

(A) The initial netting basis is the PM2.5 fraction of the PM10 netting basis in effect on May 1, 2011. DEQ may increase the initial PM2.5 netting basis by up to 5 tons if necessary to avoid exceedance of the PM2.5 significant emission rate as of May 1, 2011.

(B) Notwithstanding OAR 340-222-0041(2), the initial source specific PSEL for a source with PTE greater than or equal to the SER will be set equal to the PM2.5 fraction of the PM10 PSEL.

(c) The initial greenhouse gas netting basis and PSEL for a source will be established with the first permitting action issued after July 1, 2011, provided the permitting action involved a public notice period that began after July 1, 2011.

(d) Netting basis is zero for:

(A) Any regulated pollutant emitted from a source that first obtained permits to construct and operate after the applicable baseline period for that regulated pollutant, and has not undergone New Source Review for that pollutant;

(B) Any pollutant that has a generic PSEL in a permit;

(C) Any source permitted as portable; or

(D) Any source with a netting basis calculation resulting in a negative number.

(e) If a source relocates to an adjacent site, and the time between operation at the old and new sites is less than six months, the source may retain the netting basis from the old site.

(f) Emission reductions required by rule, order, or permit condition affect the netting basis if the source currently has devices or emissions units that are subject to the rules, order, or permit condition. The baseline emission rate is not affected. The netting basis reduction will be effective on the effective date of the rule, order, or permit condition requiring the reduction. The PSEL reduction will be effective on the compliance date of the rule, order, or permit condition.

(g) For permits issued after May 1, 2011 under New Source Review regulations in OAR 340 division 224, and where the netting basis initially equaled the potential to emit for a new or modified source, the netting basis will be reduced in accordance with the definition of actual emissions. Notwithstanding OAR 340-222-0041(2), this adjustment does not require a reduction in the PSEL.

(h) Emission reductions required by rule do not include emissions reductions achieved under OAR 340-226-0110 and 0120.

(i) Netting basis for a pollutant with a revised definition will be adjusted if the source is emitting the pollutant at the time of redefining and the pollutant is included in the permit’s netting basis.

(j) Where EPA requires an attainment demonstration based on dispersion modeling, the netting basis will be established at no more than the level used in the dispersion modeling to demonstrate attainment with the ambient air quality standard (i.e., the attainment demonstration is an emission reduction required by rule).

(76) “Nitrogen Oxides” or “NOx” means all oxides of nitrogen except nitrous oxide.

(77) “Nonattainment Area” means a geographical area of the State, as designated by the Environmental Quality Commission or the EPA, that exceeds any state or federal primary or secondary ambient air quality standard.

(78) “Nonattainment Pollutant” means a pollutant for which an area is designated a nonattainment area.

(79) “Normal Source Operation” means operations which do not include such conditions as forced fuel substitution, equipment malfunction, or highly abnormal market conditions.

(80) “Offset” means an equivalent or greater emission reduction that is required before allowing an emission increase from a proposed major source or major modification of an existing source.

(81) “Opacity” means the degree to which an emission reduces transmission of light and obscures the view of an object in the background as measured in accordance with OAR 340-212-0120 and 212-0140. Unless otherwise specified by rule, opacity shall be measured in accordance with EPA Method 9 or a continuous opacity monitoring system (COMS) installed and operated in accordance with the Department’s Continuous Monitoring Manual. For all standards, the minimum observation period shall be six minutes, though longer periods may be required by a specific rule or permit condition. Aggregate times (e.g. 3 minutes in any one hour) consist of the total duration of all readings during the observation period that equal or exceed the opacity percentage in the standard, whether or not the readings are consecutive.

(82) “Oregon Title V Operating Permit” means any permit covering an Oregon Title V Operating Permit source that is issued, renewed, amended, or revised pursuant to division 218.

(83) “Oregon Title V Operating Permit program” means a program approved by the Administrator under 40 CFR Part 70.

(84) “Oregon Title V Operating Permit program source” means any source subject to the permitting requirements, OAR 340 division 218.

(85) “Ozone Precursor” means nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds as measured by an applicable reference method in accordance with the Department’s Source Sampling Manual(January, 1992) or as measured by an EPA reference method in 40 CFR Part 60, appendix A or as measured by a material balance calculation for VOC as appropriate.

(86) “Ozone Season” means the contiguous 3 month period during which ozone exceedances typically occur (i.e., June, July, and August).

(87) “Particulate Matter” means all finely divided solid or liquid material, other than uncombined water, emitted to the ambient air. When used in emission standards, particulate matter is defined by the method specified within the standard or by an applicable reference method in accordance with OAR 340-212-0120 and 340-212-0140. Unless otherwise specified, sources with exhaust gases at or near ambient conditions may be tested with DEQ Method 5 or DEQ Method 8, as approved by the Department. Direct heat transfer sources shall be tested with DEQ Method 7; indirect heat transfer combustion sources and all other non-fugitive emissions sources not listed above shall be tested with DEQ Method 5.

(88) “Permit” means an Air Contaminant Discharge Permit or an Oregon Title V Operating Permit.

(89) “Permit modification” means a permit revision that meets the applicable requirements of OAR 340 division 216, 340 division 224, or 340-218-0160 through 340-218-0180.

(90) “Permit revision” means any permit modification or administrative permit amendment.

(91) “Permitted Emissions” as used in OAR division 220 means each regulated pollutant portion of the PSEL, as identified in an ACDP, Oregon Title V Operating Permit, review report, or by the Department pursuant to OAR 340-220-0090.

(92) “Permittee” means the owner or operator of the facility, authorized by the ACDP or the Oregon Title V Operating Permit to operate the source.

(93) “Person” means individuals, corporations, associations, firms, partnerships, joint stock companies, public and municipal corporations, political subdivisions, the State of Oregon and any agencies thereof, and the federal government and any agencies thereof.

(94) “Plant Site Emission Limit” or “PSEL” means the total mass emissions per unit time of an individual air pollutant specified in a permit for a source. The PSEL for a major source may consist of more than one permitted emission.

(95) “PM10”:

(a) When used in the context of emissions, means finely divided solid or liquid material, including condensable particulate, other than uncombined water, with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers, emitted to the ambient air as measured by an applicable reference method in accordance with the Department’s Source Sampling Manual(January, 1992);

(b) When used in the context of ambient concentration, means airborne finely divided solid or liquid material with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 10 micrometers as measured in accordance with 40 CFR Part 50, Appendix J.

(96) “PM2.5”:

(a) When used in the context of direct PM2.5 emissions, means finely divided solid or liquid material, including condensable particulate, other than uncombined water, with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 2.5 micrometers, emitted to the ambient air as measured by EPA reference methods 201A and 202 in 40 CFR Part 51, appendix M.

(b) When used in the context of PM2.5 precursor emissions, means sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) emitted to the ambient air as measured by EPA reference methods in 40 CFR Part 60, appendix A.

 (c) When used in the context of ambient concentration, means particles with an aerodynamic diameter less than or equal to a nominal 2.5 micrometers as measured by a reference method based on 40 CFR Part 50, Appendix L, or an equivalent method designated in accordance with 40 CFR Part 53.

(97) “PM2.5 fraction” means the the fraction of PM2.5 to PM10 for each emissions unit that is included in the netting basis and PSEL.

(98) “Pollutant-specific emissions unit” means an emissions unit considered separately with respect to each regulated air pollutant.

(99) “Potential to emit” or “PTE” means the lesser of:

(a) The capacity of a stationary source; or

(b) The maximum allowable emissions taking into consideration any physical or operational limitation, including air pollution control equipment and restrictions on hours of operation or on the type or amount of material combusted, stored, or processed, if the limitation is enforceable by the Administrator.

(c) This definition does not alter or affect the use of this term for any other purposes under the Act or the term “capacity factor” as used in Title IV of the Act and the regulations promulgated thereunder. Secondary emissions are not considered in determining the potential to emit.

(100) “Predictive emission monitoring system (PEMS)” means a system that uses process and other parameters as inputs to a computer program or other data reduction system to produce values in terms of the applicable emission limitation or standard.

 (101) “Process Upset” means a failure or malfunction of a production process or system to operate in a normal and usual manner.

(102) “Proposed permit” means the version of an Oregon Title V Operating Permit that the Department or a Regional Agency proposes to issue and forwards to the Administrator for review in compliance with OAR 340-218-0230.

(103) “Reference method” means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air pollutant as specified in 40 CFR Part 52, 60, 61 or 63.

(104) “Regional Agency” means Lane Regional Air Protection Agency.

(105) “Regulated air pollutant” or “Regulated Pollutant”:

(a) Except as provided in subsections (b) and(c) of this section, means:

(A) Nitrogen oxides or any VOCs;

(B) Any pollutant for which a national ambient air quality standard has been promulgated, including any precursors to such pollutants;

(C) Any pollutant that is subject to any standard promulgated under section 111 of the Act;

(D) Any Class I or II substance subject to a standard promulgated under or established by Title VI of the Act;

(E) Any pollutant listed under OAR 340-244-0040 or 340-244-0230; and

(F) Greenhouse Gases.

(b) As used in OAR 340 division 220, regulated pollutant means particulates, volatile organic compounds, oxides of nitrogen and sulfur dioxide.

(c) As used in OAR 340 division 224, regulated pollutant does not include any pollutant listed in divisions 244 and 246, unless the pollutant is listed in OAR 340 division 200 Table 2 (significant emission rates).

(106) “Renewal” means the process by which a permit is reissued at the end of its term.

(107) “Responsible official” means one of the following:

(a) For a corporation: a president, secretary, treasurer, or vice-president of the corporation in charge of a principal business function, or any other person who performs similar policy or decision-making functions for the corporation, or a duly authorized representative of such person if the representative is responsible for the overall operation of one or more manufacturing, production, or operating facilities applying for or subject to a permit and either:

(A) The facilities employ more than 250 persons or have gross annual sales or expenditures exceeding $25 million (in second quarter 1980 dollars); or

(B) The delegation of authority to such representative is approved in advance by the Department or Lane Regional Air Protection Agency.

(b) For a partnership or sole proprietorship: a general partner or the proprietor, respectively;

(c) For a municipality, State, Federal, or other public agency: either a principal executive officer or ranking elected official. For the purposes of this division, a principal executive officer of a Federal agency includes the chief executive officer having responsibility for the overall operations of a principal geographic unit of the agency(e.g., a Regional Administrator of the EPA); or

(d) For affected sources:

(A) The designated representative in so far as actions, standards, requirements, or prohibitions under Title IV of the Act or the regulations promulgated there under are concerned; and

(B) The designated representative for any other purposes under the Oregon Title V Operating Permit program.

(108) “Secondary Emissions” means emissions that are a result of the construction and/or operation of a source or modification, but that do not come from the source itself. Secondary emissions must be specific, well defined, quantifiable, and impact the same general area as the source associated with the secondary emissions. Secondary emissions may include, but are not limited to:

(a) Emissions from ships and trains coming to or from a facility;

(b) Emissions from off-site support facilities that would be constructed or would otherwise increase emissions as a result of the construction or modification of a source.

(109) “Section 111” means section 111 of the FCAA which includes Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources (NSPS).

(110) “Section 111(d)” means subsection 111(d) of the FCAA which requires states to submit to the EPA plans that establish standards of performance for existing sources and provides for implementing and enforcing such standards.

(111) “Section 112” means section 112 of the FCAA which contains regulations for Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAP).

(112) “Section 112(b)” means subsection 112(b) of the FCAA which includes the list of hazardous air pollutants to be regulated.

(113) “Section 112(d)” means subsection 112(d) of the FCAA which directs the EPA to establish emission standards for sources of hazardous air pollutants. This section also defines the criteria to be used by the EPA when establishing the emission standards.

(114) “Section 112(e)” means subsection 112(e) of the FCAA which directs the EPA to establish and promulgate emissions standards for categories and subcategories of sources that emit hazardous air pollutants.

(115) “Section 112(r)(7)” means subsection 112(r)(7) of the FCAA which requires the EPA to promulgate regulations for the prevention of accidental releases and requires owners or operators to prepare risk management plans.

(116) “Section 114(a)(3)” means subsection 114(a)(3) of the FCAA which requires enhanced monitoring and submission of compliance certifications for major sources.

(117) “Section 129” means section 129 of the FCAA which requires the EPA to establish emission standards and other requirements for solid waste incineration units.

(118) “Section 129(e)” means subsection 129(e) of the FCAA which requires solid waste incineration units to obtain Oregon Title V Operating Permits.

(119) “Section 182(f)” means subsection 182(f) of the FCAA which requires states to include plan provisions in the State Implementation Plan for NOx in ozone nonattainment areas.

(120) “Section 182(f)(1)” means subsection 182(f)(1) of the FCAA which requires states to apply those plan provisions developed for major VOC sources and major NOx sources in ozone nonattainment areas.

(121) “Section 183(e)” means subsection 183(e) of the FCAA which requires the EPA to study and develop regulations for the control of certain VOC sources under federal ozone measures.

(122) “Section 183(f)” means subsection 182(f) of the FCAA which requires the EPA to develop regulations pertaining to tank vessels under federal ozone measures.

(123) “Section 184” means section 184 of the FCAA which contains regulations for the control of interstate ozone air pollution.

(124) “Section 302” means section 302 of the FCAA which contains definitions for general and administrative purposes in the Act.

(125) “Section 302(j)” means subsection 302(j) of the FCAA which contains definitions of “major stationary source” and “major emitting facility.”

(126) “Section 328” means section 328 of the FCAA which contains regulations for air pollution from outer continental shelf activities.

(127) “Section 408(a)” means subsection 408(a) of the FCAA which contains regulations for the Title IV permit program.

(128) “Section 502(b)(10) change” means a change which contravenes an express permit term but is not a change that:

(a) Would violate applicable requirements;

(b) Would contravene federally enforceable permit terms and conditions that are monitoring, recordkeeping, reporting, or compliance certification requirements; or

(c) Is a Title I modification.

(129) “Section 504(b)” means subsection 504(b) of the FCAA which states that the EPA can prescribe by rule procedures and methods for determining compliance and for monitoring.

(130) “Section 504(e)” means subsection 504(e) of the FCAA which contains regulations for permit requirements for temporary sources.

(131) “Significant Air Quality Impact” means an additional ambient air quality concentration equal to or greater than in the concentrations listed in Table 1. The threshold concentrations listed in Table 1 are used for comparison against the ambient air quality standard and do not apply for protecting PSD Class I increments or air quality related values (including visibility). For sources of VOC or NOx, a major source or major modification has a significant impact if it is located within the Ozone Precursor Distance defined in OAR 340-225-0020.

(132) “Significant Emission Rate” or “SER,” except as provided in subsections (a) through(c) of this section, means an emission rate equal to or greater than the rates specified in Table 2.

(a) For the Medford-Ashland Air Quality Maintenance Area, the Significant Emission Rate for PM10 is defined in Table 3.

(b) For regulated air pollutants not listed in Table 2 or 3, the significant emission rate is zero unless the Department determines the rate that constitutes a significant emission rate.

(c) Any new source or modification with an emissions increase less than the rates specified in Table 2 or 3 associated with a new source or modification which would construct within 10 kilometers of a Class I area, and would have an impact on such area equal to or greater than 1 ug/m3 (24 hour average) is emitting at a significant emission rate. This provision does not apply to greenhouse gas emissions.

(133) “Significant Impairment” occurs when the Department determines that visibility impairment interferes with the management, protection, preservation, or enjoyment of the visual experience within a Class I area. The Department will make this determination on a case-by-case basis after considering the recommendations of the Federal Land Manager and the geographic extent, intensity, duration, frequency, and time of visibility impairment. These factors will be considered along with visitor use of the Class I areas, and the frequency and occurrence of natural conditions that reduce visibility.

(134) “Small scale local energy project” means:

(a) A system, mechanism or series of mechanisms located primarily in Oregon that directly or indirectly uses or enables the use of, by the owner or operator, renewable resources including, but not limited to, solar, wind, geothermal, biomass, waste heat or water resources to produce energy, including heat, electricity and substitute fuels, to meet a local community or regional energy need in this state;

(b) A system, mechanism or series of mechanisms located primarily in Oregon or providing substantial benefits to Oregon that directly or indirectly conserves energy or enables the conservation of energy by the owner or operator, including energy used in transportation;

(c) A recycling project;

(d) An alternative fuel project;

(e) An improvement that increases the production or efficiency, or extends the operating life, of a system, mechanism, series of mechanisms or project otherwise described in this section of this rule, including but not limited to restarting a dormant project;

(f) A system, mechanism or series of mechanisms installed in a facility or portions of a facility that directly or indirectly reduces the amount of energy needed for the construction and operation of the facility and that meets the sustainable building practices standard established by the State Department of Energy by rule; or

(g) A project described in subsections (a) to (f) of this section, whether or not the existing project was originally financed under ORS 470, together with any refinancing necessary to remove prior liens or encumbrances against the existing project.

(h) A project described in subsections (a) to (g) of this section that conserves energy or produces energy by generation or by processing or collection of a renewable resource.

(135) “Source” means any building, structure, facility, installation or combination thereof that emits or is capable of emitting air contaminants to the atmosphere, is located on one or more contiguous or adjacent properties and is owned or operated by the same person or by persons under common control. The term includes all pollutant emitting activities that belong to a single major industrial group (i.e., that have the same two-digit code) as described in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, (U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 1987) or that support the major industrial group.

(136) “Source category”:

(a) Except as provided in subsection(b) of this section, means all the pollutant emitting activities that belong to the same industrial grouping(i.e., that have the same two-digit code) as described in the Standard Industrial Classification Manual, (U.S. Office of Management and Budget, 1987).

(b) As used in OAR 340 division 220, Oregon Title V Operating Permit Fees, means a group of major sources that the Department determines are using similar raw materials and have equivalent process controls and pollution control equipment.

(137) “Source Test” means the average of at least three test runs conducted in accordance with the Department’s Source Sampling Manual.

 (138) “Startup” and “shutdown” means that time during which an air contaminant source or emission-control equipment is brought into normal operation or normal operation is terminated, respectively.

(139) “State Implementation Plan” or “SIP” means the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the Commission under OAR 340-200-0040 and approved by EPA.

(140) “Stationary source” means any building, structure, facility, or installation at a source that emits or may emit any regulated air pollutant.

(141) “Substantial Underpayment” means the lesser of ten percent (10%) of the total interim emission fee for the major source or five hundred dollars.

(142) “Synthetic minor source” means a source that would be classified as a major source under OAR 340-200-0020, but for limits on its potential to emit air pollutants contained in a permit issued by the Department under OAR 340 division 216 or 218.

(143) “Title I modification” means one of the following modifications pursuant to Title I of the FCAA:

(a) A major modification subject to OAR 340-224-0050, Requirements for Sources in Nonattainment Areas;

(b) A major modification subject to OAR 340-224-0060, Requirements for Sources in Maintenance Areas;

(c) A major modification subject to OAR 340-224-0070, Prevention of Significant Deterioration Requirements for Sources in Attainment or Unclassified Areas;

(d) A modification that is subject to a New Source Performance Standard under Section 111 of the FCAA; or

(e) A modification under Section 112 of the FCAA.

(144) “Total Reduced Sulfur” or “TRS” means the sum of the sulfur compounds hydrogen sulfide, methyl mercaptan, dimethyl sulfide, dimethyl disulfide, and any other organic sulfides present expressed as hydrogen sulfide(H2S).

(145) “Typically Achievable Control Technology” or “TACT” means the emission limit established on a case-by-case basis for a criteria pollutant from a particular emissions unit in accordance with OAR 340-226-0130. For existing sources, the emission limit established will be typical of the emission level achieved by emissions units similar in type and size. For new and modified sources, the emission limit established will be typical of the emission level achieved by well controlled new or modified emissions units similar in type and size that were recently installed. TACT determinations will be based on information known to the Department while considering pollution prevention, impacts on other environmental media, energy impacts, capital and operating costs, cost effectiveness, and the age and remaining economic life of existing emission control equipment. The Department may consider emission control technologies typically applied to other types of emissions units where such technologies could be readily applied to the emissions unit. If an emission limitation is not feasible, a design, equipment, work practice, operational standard, or combination thereof, may be required.

(146) “Unassigned Emissions” means the amount of emissions that are in excess of the PSEL but less than the Netting Basis.

(147)”Unavoidable” or “could not be avoided” means events that are not caused entirely or in part by poor or inadequate design, operation, maintenance, or any other preventable condition in either process or control equipment.

(148) “Upset” or “Breakdown” means any failure or malfunction of any pollution control equipment or operating equipment that may cause excess emissions.

 (149) “Visibility Impairment” means any humanly perceptible change in visual range, contrast or coloration from that which existed under natural conditions. Natural conditions include fog, clouds, windblown dust, rain, sand, naturally ignited wildfires, and natural aerosols.

(150) “Volatile Organic Compounds” or “VOC” means any compound of carbon, excluding carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, metallic carbides or carbonates, and ammonium carbonate, that participates in atmospheric photochemical reactions.

(a) This includes any such organic compound except the following, which have been determined to have negligible photochemical reactivity in the formation of tropospheric ozone: methane; ethane; methylene chloride(dichloromethane); dimethyl carbonate, propylene carbonate, 1,1,1-trichloroethane(methyl chloroform); 1,1,2-trichloro-1,2,2-trifluoroethane(CFC-113); trichlorofluoromethane(CFC-11); dichlorodifluoromethane(CFC-12); chlorodifluoromethane(HCFC-22); trifluoromethane(HFC-23); 1,2-dichloro-1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane (CFC-114); chloropentafluoroethane(CFC-115); 1,1,1-trifluoro 2,2-dichloroethane(HCFC-123); 1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane(HFC-134a); 1,1-dichloro 1-fluoroethane(HCFC-141b); 1-chloro 1,1-difluoroethane(HCFC-142b); 2-chloro-1,1,1,2-tetrafluoroethane(HCFC-124); pentafluoroethane(HFC-125); 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane(HFC-134); 1,1,1-trifluoroethane(HFC-143a); 1,1-difluoroethane (HFC-152a); parachlorobenzotrifluoride(PCBTF); cyclic, branched, or linear completely methylated siloxanes; acetone; perchloroethylene(tetrachloroethylene); 3,3-dichloro-1,1,1,2,2-pentafluoropropane(HCFC-225ca); 1,3-dichloro-1,1,2,2,3-pentafluoropropane (HCFC-225cb); 1,1,1,2,3,4,4,5,5,5-decafluoropentane HFC 43-10mee); difluoromethane(HFC-32); ethylfluoride(HFC-161); 1,1,1,3,3,3-hexafluoropropane(HFC-236fa); 1,1,2,2,3-pentafluoropropane(HFC-245ca); 1,1,2,3,3-pentafluoropropane(HFC-245ea); 1,1,1,2,3-pentafluoropropane(HFC-245eb); 1,1,1,3,3-pentafluoropropane(HFC-245fa); 1,1,1,2,3,3-hexafluoropropane(HFC-236ea); 1,1,1,3,3-pentafluorobutane(HFC-365mfc); chlorofluoromethane (HCFC-31); 1 chloro-1-fluoroethane(HCFC-151a); 1,2-dichloro-1,1,2-trifluoroethane(HCFC-123a); 1,1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4-nonafluoro-4-methoxy-butane(C4F9OCH3 or HFE-7100); 2-(difluoromethoxymethyl)-1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptafluoropropane((CF3)2CFCF2OCH3); 1-ethoxy-1,1,2,2,3,3,4,4,4-nonafluorobutane(C4F9OC2H5 or HFE-7200); 2-(ethoxydifluoromethyl)-1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptafluoropropane ((CF3)2CFCF2OC2H5); methyl acetate; 1,1,1,2,2,3,3-heptafluoro-3-methoxy-propane(n-C3F7OCH3, HFE-7000); 3-ethoxy-1,1,1,2,3, 4,4,5,5,6,6,6-dodecafluoro-2-(trifluoromethyl) hexane(HFE-7500); 1,1,1,2,3,3,3-heptafluoropropane(HFC 227ea); methyl formate (HCOOCH3); (1) 1,1,1,2,2,3,4,5,5,5-decafluoro-3-methoxy-4-trifluoromethyl-pentane(HFE-7300); and perfluorocarbon compounds that fall into these classes:

(A) Cyclic, branched, or linear, completely fluorinated alkanes;

(B) Cyclic, branched, or linear, completely fluorinated ethers with no unsaturations;

(C) Cyclic, branched, or linear, completely fluorinated tertiary amines with no unsaturations; and

(D) Sulfur containing perfluorocarbons with no unsaturations and with sulfur bonds only to carbon and fluorine.

(b) For purposes of determining compliance with emissions limits, VOC will be measured by an applicable reference method in accordance with the Department’s Source Sampling Manual, January, 1992. Where such a method also measures compounds with negligible photochemical reactivity, these negligibly-reactive compounds may be excluded as VOC if the amount of such compounds is accurately quantified, and the Department approves the exclusion.

(c) The Department may require an owner or operator to provide monitoring or testing methods and results demonstrating, to the Department’s satisfaction, the amount of negligibly-reactive compounds in the source’s emissions.

(d) The following compound(s) are VOC for purposes of all recordkeeping, emissions reporting, photochemical dispersion modeling and inventory requirements which apply to VOC and must be uniquely identified in emission reports, but are not VOC for purposes of VOC emissions limitations or VOC content requirements: t-butyl acetate.

(151) “Year” means any consecutive 12 month period of time.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: [DEQ 15-1978, f. & ef. 10-13-78; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033.04; DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 5-1983, f. & ef. 4-18-83; DEQ 18-1984, f. & ef. 10-16-84; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (and corrected 5-31-88); DEQ 14-1989, f. & cert. ef. 6-26-89; DEQ 42-1990, f. 12-13-90, cert. ef. 1-2-91; DEQ 2-1992, f. & cert. ef. 1-30-92; DEQ 7-1992, f. & cert. ef. 3-30-92; DEQ 27-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-92; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0145, 340-020-0225, 340-020-0305, 340-020-0355, 340-020-0460 & 340-020-0520; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 20-1993(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 13-1994, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-94; DEQ 21-1994, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-94; DEQ 24-1994, f. & cert. ef. 10-28-94; DEQ 10-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-1-95; DEQ 12-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-23-95; DEQ 22-1995, f. & cert. ef. 10-6-95; DEQ 19-1996, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-96; DEQ 22-1996, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-96; DEQ 9-1997, f. & cert. ef. 5-9-97; DEQ 14-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-14-98; DEQ 16-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 21-1998, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-98; DEQ 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 1-25-99; DEQ 6-1999, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-99]; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-020-0205, 340-028-0110; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 2-2005, f. & cert. ef. 2-10-05; DEQ 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-06; DEQ 6-2007(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-17-07 thru 2-12-08; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 10-2008, f. & cert. ef. 8-25-08; DEQ 5-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-10; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-200-0025

Abbreviations and Acronyms

(1) “ACDP” means Air Contaminant Discharge Permit.

(2) “ACT” means Federal Clean Air Act.

(3) “AE” means Actual Emissions.

(4) “AICPA” means Association of Independent Certified Public Accountants.

(5) “AQCR” means Air Quality Control Region.

(6) “AQMA” means Air Quality Maintenance Area.

(7) “ASME” means American Society of Mechanical Engineers.

(8) “ASTM” means American Society for Testing & Materials.

(9) “ATETP” means Automotive Technician Emission Training Program.

(10) “AWD” means all wheel drive.

(11) “BACT” means Best Available Control Technology.

(12) “BLS” means black liquor solids.

(13) “CAA” means Clean Air Act

(14) “CAR” means control area responsible party.

(15) “CBD” means central business district.

(16) “CCTMP” means Central City Transportation Management Plan.

(17) “CEM” means continuous emissions monitoring.

(18) “CEMS” means continuous emission monitoring system.

(19) “CERCLA” means Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act.

(20) “CFRMS” means continuous flow rate monitoring system.

(21) “CFR” means Code of Federal Regulations.

(22) “CMS” means continuous monitoring system.

(23) “CO” means carbon monoxide.

(24) “CO2e” means carbon dioxide equivalent.

(25) “COMS” means continuous opacity monitoring system.

(26) “CPMS” means continuous parameter monitoring system.

(27) “DEQ” means Department of Environmental Quality.

(28) “DOD” means Department of Defense.

(29) “EA” means environmental assessment.

(30) “ECO” means employee commute options.

(31) “EEAF” means emissions estimate adjustment factor.

(32) “EF” means emission factor.

(33) “EGR” means exhaust gas re-circulation.

(34) “EIS” means Environmental Impact Statement

(35) “EPA” means Environmental Protection Agency.

(36) “EQC” means Environmental Quality Commission.

(37) “ESP” means electrostatic precipitator.

(38) “FCAA” means Federal Clean Air Act.

(39) “FHWA” means Federal Highway Administration.

(40) “FONSI” means finding of no significant impact.

(41) “FTA” means Federal Transit Administration.

(42) “GFA” means gross floor area.

(43) “GHG” means greenhouse gases.

(44) “GLA” means gross leasable area.

(45) “GPM” means grams per mile.

(46) “gr/dscf” means grains per dry standard cubic foot.

(47) “GTBA” means grade tertiary butyl alcohol.

(48) “GVWR” means gross vehicle weight rating.

(49) “HAP” means hazardous air pollutant.

(50) “HEPA” means high efficiency particulate air.

(51) “HMIWI” means hospital medical infectious waste incinerator.

(52) “I/M” means inspection and maintenance program.

(53) “IG” means inspection grade.

(54) “IRS” means Internal Revenue Service.

(55) “ISECP” means indirect source emission control program.

(56) “ISTEA” means Intermodal Surface Transportation Efficiency Act.

(57) “LAER” means Lowest Achievable Emission Rate.

(58) “LDT2” means light duty truck 2.

(59) “LIDAR” means laser radar; light detection and ranging.

(60) “LPG” means liquefied petroleum gas.

(61) “LRAPA” means Lane Regional Air Protection Agency.

(62) “LUCS” means Land Use Compatibility Statement.

(63) “MACT” means Maximum Achievable Control Technology.

(64) “MPO” means Metropolitan Planning Organization.

(65) “MTBE” means methyl tertiary butyl ether.

(66) “MWC” means municipal waste combustor.

(67) “NAAQS” means National Ambient Air Quality Standards.

(68) “NEPA” means National Environmental Policy Act.

(69) “NESHAP” means National Emissions Standard for Hazardous Air Pollutants.

(70) “NIOSH” means National Institute of Occupational Safety & Health.

(71) “NOx” means nitrogen oxides.

(72) “NSPS” means New Source Performance Standards.

(73) “NSR” means New Source Review.

(74) “NSSC” means neutral sulfite semi-chemical.

(75) “O3” means ozone.

(76) “OAR” means Oregon Administrative Rules.

(77) “ODOT” means Oregon Department of Transportation.

(78) “ORS” means Oregon Revised Statutes.

(79) “OSAC” means orifice spark advance control.

(80) “OSHA” means Occupational Safety & Health Administration.

(81) “PCDE” means pollution control device collection efficiency.

(82) “PEMS” means predictive emission monitoring system.

(83) “PM” means particulate matter.

(84) “PM10” means particulate matter less than 10 microns.

(85) “PM2.5” means particulate matter less than 2.5 microns.

(86) “POTW” means Publicly Owned Treatment Works.

(87) “POV” means privately owned vehicle.

(88) “PSD” means Prevention of Significant Deterioration.

(89) “PSEL” means Plant Site Emission Limit.

(90) “QIP” means quality improvement plan.

(91) “RACT” means Reasonably Available Control Technology.

(92) “RVCOG” means Rogue Valley Council of Governments.

(93) “RWOC” means running weighted oxygen content.

(94) “SKATS” means Salem-Kaiser Area Transportation Study.

(95) “scf” means standard cubic feet.

(96) “SCS” means speed control switch.

(97) “SD” means standard deviation.

(98) “SIP” means State Implementation Plan.

(99) “SO2” means sulfur dioxide.

(100) “SOCMI” means synthetic organic chemical manufacturing industry.

(101) “SOS” means Secretary of State.

(102) “TAC” means thermostatic air cleaner.

(103) “TACT” means Typically Achievable Control Technology.

(104) “TCM” means transportation control measures.

(105) “TCS” means throttle control solenoid.

(106) “TIP” means Transportation Improvement Program.

(107) “TRS” means total reduced sulfur.

(108) “TSP” means total suspended particulate matter.

(109) “UGA” means urban growth area.

(110) “UGB” means urban growth boundary.

(1911) “US DOT” means United States Department of Transportation.

(112) “UST” means underground storage tanks.

(113) “UTM” means universal transverse mercator.

(114) “VIN” means vehicle identification number.

(115) “VMT” means vehicle miles traveled.

(116) “VOC” means volatile organic compounds.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 4-12-07; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 5-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-10; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-200-0040

State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan

(1) This implementation plan, consisting of Volumes 2 and 3 of the State of Oregon Air Quality Control Program, contains control strategies, rules and standards prepared by the Department of Environmental Quality and is adopted as the state implementation plan (SIP) of the State of Oregon pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act, 42 U.S.C.A 7401 to 7671q.

(2) Except as provided in section (3), revisions to the SIP will be made pursuant to the Commission’s rulemaking procedures in division 11 of this chapter and any other requirements contained in the SIP and will be submitted to the United States Environmental Protection Agency for approval. The State Implementation Plan was last modified by the Commission on April 21, 2011.

(3) Notwithstanding any other requirement contained in the SIP, the Department may:

(a) Submit to the Environmental Protection Agency any permit condition implementing a rule that is part of the federally-approved SIP as a source-specific SIP revision after the Department has complied with the public hearings provisions of 40 CFR 51.102 (July 1, 2002); and

(b) Approve the standards submitted by a regional authority if the regional authority adopts verbatim any standard that the Commission has adopted, and submit the standards to EPA for approval as a SIP revision.

NOTE: Revisions to the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan become federally enforceable upon approval by the United States Environmental Protection Agency. If any provision of the federally approved Implementation Plan conflicts with any provision adopted by the Commission, the Department shall enforce the more stringent provision.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.035

Hist.: DEQ 35, f. 2-3-72, ef. 2-15-72; DEQ 54, f. 6-21-73, ef. 7-1-73; DEQ 19-1979, f. & ef. 6-25-79; DEQ 21-1979, f. & ef. 7-2-79; DEQ 22-1980, f. & ef. 9-26-80; DEQ 11-1981, f. & ef. 3-26-81; DEQ 14-1982, f. & ef. 7-21-82; DEQ 21-1982, f. & ef. 10-27-82; DEQ 1-1983, f. & ef. 1-21-83; DEQ 6-1983, f. & ef. 4-18-83; DEQ 18-1984, f. & ef. 10-16-84; DEQ 25-1984, f. & ef. 11-27-84; DEQ 3-1985, f. & ef. 2-1-85; DEQ 12-1985, f. & ef. 9-30-85; DEQ 5-1986, f. & ef. 2-21-86; DEQ 10-1986, f. & ef. 5-9-86; DEQ 20-1986, f. & ef. 11-7-86; DEQ 21-1986, f. & ef. 11-7-86; DEQ 4-1987, f. & ef. 3-2-87; DEQ 5-1987, f. & ef. 3-2-87; DEQ 8-1987, f. & ef. 4-23-87; DEQ 21-1987, f. & ef. 12-16-87; DEQ 31-1988, f. 12-20-88, cert. ef. 12-23-88; DEQ 2-1991, f. & cert. ef. 2-14-91; DEQ 19-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 20-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 21-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 22-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 23-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 24-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 25-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 1-1992, f. & cert. ef. 2-4-92; DEQ 3-1992, f. & cert. ef. 2-4-92; DEQ 7-1992, f. & cert. ef. 3-30-92; DEQ 19-1992, f. & cert. ef. 8-11-92; DEQ 20-1992, f. & cert. ef. 8-11-92; DEQ 25-1992, f. 10-30-92, cert. ef. 11-1-92; DEQ 26-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-2-92; DEQ 27-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-92; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 8-1993, f. & cert. ef. 5-11-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93; DEQ 15-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 16-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 17-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 1-3-94; DEQ 5-1994, f. & cert. ef. 3-21-94; DEQ 14-1994, f. & cert. ef. 5-31-94; DEQ 15-1994, f. 6-8-94, cert. ef. 7-1-94; DEQ 25-1994, f. & cert. ef. 11-2-94; DEQ 9-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-1-95; DEQ 10-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-1-95; DEQ 14-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-95; DEQ 17-1995, f. & cert. ef. 7-12-95; DEQ 19-1995, f. & cert. ef. 9-1-95; DEQ 20-1995 (Temp), f. & cert. ef. 9-14-95; DEQ 8-1996(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 6-3-96; DEQ 15-1996, f. & cert. ef. 8-14-96; DEQ 19-1996, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-96; DEQ 22-1996, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-96; DEQ 23-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-96; DEQ 24-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 10-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-22-98; DEQ 15-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 16-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 17-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 20-1998, f. & cert. ef. 10-12-98; DEQ 21-1998, f. & cert. ef. 10-12-98; DEQ 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 1-25-99; DEQ 5-1999, f. & cert. ef. 3-25-99; DEQ 6-1999, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-99; DEQ 10-1999, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-99; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-020-0047; DEQ 15-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-99; DEQ 2-2000, f. 2-17-00, cert. ef. 6-1-01; DEQ 6-2000, f. & cert. ef. 5-22-00; DEQ 8-2000, f. & cert. ef. 6-6-00; DEQ 13-2000, f. & cert. ef. 7-28-00; DEQ 16-2000, f. & cert. ef. 10-25-00; DEQ 17-2000, f. & cert. ef. 10-25-00; DEQ 20-2000 f. & cert. ef. 12-15-00; DEQ 21-2000, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-00; DEQ 2-2001, f. & cert. ef. 2-5-01; DEQ 4-2001, f. & cert. ef. 3-27-01; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 15-2001, f. & cert. ef. 12-26-01; DEQ 16-2001, f. & cert. ef. 12-26-01; DEQ 17-2001, f. & cert. ef. 12-28-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 5-2002, f. & cert. ef. 5-3-02; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 5-2003, f. & cert. ef. 2-6-03; DEQ 14-2003, f. & cert. ef. 10-24-03; DEQ 19-2003, f. & cert. ef. 12-12-03; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 10-2004, f. & cert. ef. 12-15-04; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 2-2005, f. & cert. ef. 2-10-05; DEQ 4-2005, f. 5-13-05, cert. ef. 6-1-05; DEQ 7-2005, f. & cert. ef. 7-12-05; DEQ 9-2005, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-05; DEQ 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-06; DEQ 4-2006, f. 3-29-06, cert. ef. 3-31-06; DEQ 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 4-12-07; DEQ 4-2007, f. & cert. ef. 6-28-07; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 5-2008, f. & cert. ef. 3-20-08; DEQ 11-2008, f. & cert. ef. 8-29-08; DEQ 12-2008, f. & cert. ef. 9-17-08; DEQ 14-2008, f. & cert. ef. 11-10-08; DEQ 15-2008, f. & cert. ef 12-31-08; DEQ 3-2009, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-09; DEQ 8-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-16-09; DEQ 2-2010, f. & cert. ef. 3-5-10; DEQ 5-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-10; DEQ 14-2010, f. & cert. ef. 12-10-10; DEQ 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-11; DEQ 2-2011, f. 3-10-11, cert. ef. 3-15-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-202-0010

Definitions

The definitions in OAR 340-200-0020 and this rule apply to this division. If the same term is defined in this rule and OAR 340-200-0020, the definition in this rule applies to this division.

(1) “Ambient Air” means that portion of the atmosphere external to buildings, to which the general public has access.

(2) “Ambient Air Monitoring Site Criteria” means the general probe siting specifications as set forth in Appendix E of 40 CFR 58.

(3) “Approved Method” means an analytical method for measuring air contaminant concentrations described or referenced in 40 CFR 50 and Appendices. These methods are approved by the Department of Environmental Quality.

(4) “Baseline Concentration” means:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), the ambient concentration level for sulfur dioxide and PM10 that existed in an area during the calendar year 1978. Actual emission increases or decreases occurring before January 1, 1978 must be included in the baseline calculation, except that actual emission increases from any source or modification on which construction commenced after January 6, 1975 must not be included in the baseline calculation;

(b) The ambient concentration level for nitrogen oxides that existed in an area during the calendar year 1988.

(c) For the area of northeastern Oregon within the boundaries of the Umatilla, Wallowa-Whitman, Ochoco, and Malheur National Forests, the ambient concentration level for PM10 that existed during the calendar year 1993. The Department allows the use of a prior time period if the Department determines that it is more representative of normal emissions.

(d) For PM10 in the Medford-Ashland AQMA: the ambient PM10 concentration levels that existed during the year that EPA redesignates the AQMA to attainment for PM10.

(e) The ambient concentration level for PM2.5 that existed in an area during the calendar year 2007.

(f) If no ambient air quality data is available in an area, the baseline concentration may be estimated using modeling based on actual emissions for the years specified in subsections (a) through (e) of this section.

 (5) “Indian Governing Body” means the governing body of any tribe, band, or group of Indians subject to the jurisdiction of the United States and recognized by the United States as possessing power of self-government.

(6) “Indian Reservation” means any federally recognized reservation established by Treaty, Agreement, Executive Order, or Act of Congress.

(7) “Oregon Standard Method” means any method of sampling and analyzing for an air contaminant approved by the Department. Oregon standard methods are kept on file by the Department.

(8) “PPM” means parts per million by volume. It is a dimensionless unit of measurement for gases that expresses the ratio of the volume of one component gas to the volume of the entire sample mixture of gases.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the Environmental Quality Commission under OAR 340-200-0040.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 37, f. 2-15-72, ef. 3-1-72; DEQ 18-1979, f. & ef. 6-22-79; DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (corrected 9-30-88); DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93, Renumbered from 340-031-0105; DEQ 17-1995, f. & cert. ef. 7-12-95; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-031-0005; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-202-0060

Suspended Particulate Matter

Concentrations of the fraction of suspended particulate that is equal to or less than ten microns in aerodynamic diameter in ambient air as measured by an approved method must not exceed:

 (1) 150 micrograms of PM10 per cubic meter of air as a 24-hour average concentration for any calendar day. This standard is attained when the expected number of days per calendar year with a 24-hour average concentration above 150 micrograms per cubic meter as determined in accordance with Appendix K of 40 CFR 50 is equal to or less than one at any site.

Concentrations of the fraction of suspended particulate that is equal to or less than 2.5 microns in aerodynamic diameter in ambient air as measured by an approved method must not exceed:

(2) 35 micrograms of PM2.5 per cubic meter of air as a 3-year average of annual 98th percentile 24-hour average values recorded at each monitoring site. This standard is attained when the 3-year average of annual 98th percentile 24-hour average concentrations is equal to or less than 35 micrograms per cubic meter as determined in accordance with Appendix N of 40 CFR 50.

(3) 15 micrograms of PM2.5 per cubic meter of air as a 3-year average of the annual arithmetic mean. This standard is attained when the annual arithmetic mean concentration is equal to or less than 15 micrograms per cubic meter as determined in accordance with Appendix N of 40 CFR 50.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the Environmental Quality Commission under OAR 340-200-0040.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 37, f. 2-15-72, ef. 3-1-72; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (corrected 9-30-88); DEQ 24-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-13-91; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-031-0015; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2010, f. & cert. ef. 5-21-10; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-202-0210

Ambient Air Increments

(1) This rule defines significant deterioration. In areas designated as Class I, II or III, emissions from new or modified sources must be limited such that increases in pollutant concentration over the baseline concentration must be limited to those set out in Table 1.

(2) For any period other than an annual period, the applicable maximum allowable increase may be exceeded during one such period per year at any one location.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 18-1979, f. & ef. 6-22-79; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (corrected 9-30-88); DEQ 7-1992, f. & cert. ef. 3-30-92; DEQ 17-1995, f. & cert. ef. 7-12-95; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-031-0110; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-215-0060

Greenhouse Gas Reporting Fees

(1) Any person required to register and report under OAR 340-215-0030(1)(a) must submit greenhouse gas reporting fees to the Department as specified in OAR 340-220-0050(4). The fees must be received by the Department within 30 days after the Department mails the fee invoice.

(2) Any person required to register and report under OAR 340-215-0030(1)(b)–(c) must submit greenhouse gas reporting fees to the Department as specified in OAR chapter 340, division 216, Table 2, Part 3. The fees must be received by the Department within 30 days after the Department mails the fee invoice.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020 & 468A.050

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468 & 468A

Hist.: DEQ 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 10-27-10; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0020

Applicability

This division applies to all sources referred to in Table 1. This division also applies to Oregon Title V Operating Permit program sources when an ACDP is required by OAR 340-218-0020 or 340-224-0010. Sources referred to in Table 1 are subject to fees as set forth in Table 2.

(1) No person may construct, install, establish, develop or operate any air contaminant source which is referred to in Table 1 without first obtaining an Air Contaminant Discharge Permit (ACDP) from the Department or Regional Authority, unless otherwise deferred from the requirement to obtain an ACDP in subsection (1)(c) or (d) of this rule. No person may continue to operate an air contaminant source if the ACDP expires, or is terminated or revoked; except as provided in OAR 340-216-0082.

(a) For portable sources, a single permit may be issued for operating at any area of the state if the permit includes the requirements from both the Department and Regional Authorities.

(b) The Department or Regional Authority where the portable source’s Corporate offices are located will be responsible for issuing the permit. If the corporate office of a portable source is located outside of the state, the Department will be responsible for issuing the permit.

(c) An air contaminant source required to obtain an ACDP or ACDP Attachment pursuant to a NESHAP or NSPS adopted by the Commission by rule is not required to submit an application for an ACDP or ACDP Attachment until four months after the effective date of the Commission’s adoption of the NESHAP or NSPS, and is not required to obtain an ACDP or ACDP Attachment until six months after the Commission’s adoption of the NESHAP or NSPS. In addition, the Department may defer the requirement to submit an application for, or to obtain an ACDP or ACDP Attachment, or both, for up to an additional twelve months.

(d) Gasoline dispensing facilities are not required to submit an application for an ACDP or ACDP Attachment until May 1, 2010 or obtain an ACDP or ACDP attachment until June 1, 2010. The Department may defer the requirement to submit an application for, or to obtain an ACDP or ACDP Attachment, or both, for up to an additional six months.

(e) Deferrals of Oregon permitting requirements do not relieve an air contaminant source from the responsibility of complying with federal NESHAP or NSPS requirements.

(2) No person may construct, install, establish, or develop any source that will be subject to the Oregon Title V Operating Permit program without first obtaining an ACDP from the Department or Regional Authority.

(3) No person may modify any source that has been issued an ACDP without first complying with the requirements of OAR 340-210-0205 through 340-210-0250.

(4) No person may modify any source required to have an ACDP such that the source becomes subject to the Oregon Title V Operating Permit program without complying with the requirements of OAR 340-210-0205 through 340-210-0250.

(5) No person may increase emissions above the PSEL by more than the de minimis levels specified in OAR 340-200-0020 without first applying for and obtaining a modified ACDP.

(6) Subject to the requirements in this Division, the Lane Regional Air Protection Agency is designated by the Commission as the permitting agency to implement the Air Contaminant Discharge Permit program within its area of jurisdiction. The Regional Agency’s program is subject to Department oversight. The requirements and procedures contained in this Division pertaining to the Air Contaminant Discharge Permit program shall be used by the Regional Agency to implement its permitting program until the Regional Agency adopts superseding rules which are at least as restrictive as state rules.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-211-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033; DEQ 125, f. & ef. 12-16-76; DEQ 20-1979, f. & ef. 6-29-79; DEQ 23-1980, f. & ef. 9-26-80; DEQ 13-1981, f. 5-6-81, ef. 7-1-81; DEQ 11-1983, f. & ef. 5-31-83; DEQ 3-1986, f. & ef. 2-12-86; DEQ 12-1987, f. & ef. 6-15-87; DEQ 27-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-29-91; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0155; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 22-1994, f. & cert. ef. 10-4-94; DEQ 22-1995, f. & cert. ef. 10-6-95; DEQ 19-1996, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-96; DEQ 22-1996, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-96; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1720; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 7-2007, f. & cert. ef. 10-18-07; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 15-2008, f. & cert. ef 12-31-08; DEQ 8-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-16-09; DEQ 9-2009(Temp), f. 12-24-09, cert. ef. 1-1-10 thru 6-30-10; Administrative correction 7-27-10; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; DEQ 12-2010, f. & cert. ef. 10-27-10; DEQ 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0025

Types of Permits

(1) Construction ACDP:

(a) A Construction ACDP may be used for approval of Type 3 changes specified in OAR 340-210-0220 at a source subject to the ACDP permit requirements in this division.

(b) A Construction ACDP is required for Type 3 changes specified in OAR 340-210-0225 at sources subject to the Oregon Title V Operating Permit requirements.

(2) General ACDP. A General ACDP is for a category of sources for which individual permits are unnecessary in order to protect the environment. An owner or operator of a source may be assigned to a General ACDP if the Department has issued a General ACDP for the source category:

(a) The source meets the qualifications specified in the General ACDP;

(b) The Department determines that the source has not had ongoing, reoccurring, or serious compliance problems; and

(c) The Department determines that a General ACDP would appropriately regulate the source.

(3) Short Term Activity ACDP. A Short Term Activity ACDP is a letter permit that authorizes the activity and includes any conditions placed upon the method or methods of operation of the activity. The Department may issue a Short Term Activity ACDP for unexpected or emergency activities, operations, or emissions.

(4) Basic ACDP. A Basic ACDP is a permit that authorizes the regulated source to operate in conformance with the rules contained in OAR 340 divisions 200 to 268.

(a) Owners and operators of sources and activities listed in Table 1, Part A of OAR 340-216-0020 must at a minimum obtain a Basic ACDP.

(b) Any owner or operator of a source required to obtain a Basic ACDP may obtain either a Simple or Standard ACDP.

(5) Simple ACDP. A Simple ACDP is a permit that contains:

(a) All relevant applicable requirements for source operation, including general ACDP conditions for incorporating generally applicable requirements;

(b) Generic PSELs for all pollutants emitted at more than the deminimis level in accordance with OAR 340 division 222;

(c) Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements sufficient to determine compliance with the PSEL and other emission limits and standards, as necessary; and

(d) A permit duration not to exceed 5 years.

(6) Standard ACDP:

(a) A Standard ACDP is a permit that contains:

(A) All applicable requirements, including general ACDP conditions for incorporating generally applicable requirements;

(B) Source specific PSELs or Generic PSELs, whichever are applicable, as specified in OAR 340 division 222;

(C) Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements sufficient to determine compliance with the PSEL and other emission limits and standards, as necessary; and

(D) A permit duration not to exceed 5 years.

(b) All owners and operators of sources and activities listed in Table 1, Part C of OAR 340-216-0020 must obtain a Standard ACDP.

(c) Owners or operators of sources and activities listed in Table 1, Part B of OAR 340-216-0020 which do not qualify for a General ACDP or Simple ACDP must obtain a Standard ACDP.

(d) Any owner or operator of a source not required to obtain a Standard ACDP may obtain a Standard ACDP.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-211-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020 & 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033; DEQ 125, f. & ef. 12-16-76; DEQ 20-1979, f. & ef. 6-29-79; DEQ 23-1980, f. & ef. 9-26-80; DEQ 13-1981, f. 5-6-81, ef. 7-1-81; DEQ 11-1983, f. & ef. 5-31-83; DEQ 3-1986, f. & ef. 2-12-86; DEQ 12-1987, f. & ef. 6-15-87; DEQ 27-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-29-91; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0155; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 22-1994, f. & cert. ef. 10-4-94; DEQ 22-1995, f. & cert. ef. 10-6-95; DEQ 19-1996, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-96; DEQ 22-1996, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-96; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1720; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0040

Application Requirements

(1) New Permits. Except for Short Term Activity ACDPs, any person required to obtain a new ACDP must provide the following general information, as applicable, using forms provided by the Department in addition to any other information required for a specific permit type:

(a) Identifying information, including the name of the company, the mailing address, the facility address, and the nature of business (Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) code);

(b) The name and phone number of a local person responsible for compliance with the permit;

(c) The name of a person authorized to receive requests for data and information;

(d) A description of the production processes and related flow chart;

(e) A plot plan showing the location and height of air contaminant sources. The plot plan must also indicate the nearest residential or commercial property;

(f) The type and quantity of fuels used;

(g) An estimate of the amount and type of each air contaminant emitted by the source in terms of hourly, daily, or monthly and yearly rates, showing calculation procedures;

(h) Any information on pollution prevention measures and cross-media impacts the applicant wants the Department to consider in determining applicable control requirements and evaluating compliance methods;

(i) Estimated efficiency of air pollution control equipment under present or anticipated operating conditions;

(j) Where the operation or maintenance of air pollution control equipment and emission reduction processes can be adjusted or varied from the highest reasonable efficiency and effectiveness, information necessary for the Department to establish operational and maintenance requirements in accordance with OAR 340-226-0120(1) and (2);

(k) A Land Use Compatibility Statement signed by a local (city or county) planner either approving or disapproving construction or modification of the source, if required by the local planning agency; and

(l) Any other information requested by the Department.

(2) Renewal Permits. Except for Short Term Activity ACDPs, any person required to renew an existing permit must submit the information identified in section (1) using forms provided by the Department, unless there are no significant changes to the permit. If there are significant changes, the applicant must provided the information identified in section (1) only for those changes. Where there are no significant changes to the permit , the applicant may use a streamlined permit renewal application process by providing the following information:

(a) Identifying information, including the name of the company, the mailing address, the facility address, and the nature of business (Standard Industrial Classification (SIC) code) using a form provided by the Department; and

(b) A marked up copy of the previous permit indicating minor changes along with an explanation for each requested change.

(3) Permit Modifications. For Simple and Standard ACDP modifications, the applicant must provided the information in section (1) relevant to the requested changes to the permit and a list of any new requirements applicable to those changes.

(4) Any owner or operator who fails to submit any relevant facts or who has submitted incorrect information in a permit application must, upon becoming aware of such failure or incorrect submittal, promptly submit such supplementary facts or corrected information.

(5) The department must receive the application at least 60 days before a permit or modified permit is needed.

(6) The application must be completed in full and signed by the applicant or the applicant’s legally authorized representative.

(7) Two copies of the application are required, unless otherwise requested by the Department. At least one of the copies must be a paper copy, but the others may be in any other format, including electronic copies, upon approval by the Department.

(8) A copy of NSR permit applications and supplemental information must also be submitted directly to the EPA.

(9) The name of the applicant must be the legal name of the facility or the owner’s agent or the lessee responsible for the operation and maintenance of the facility. The legal name must be registered with the Secretary of State Corporations Division.

(10) All applications must include the appropriate fees as specified in Table 2 of OAR 340-216-0020.

(11) Applications that are obviously incomplete, unsigned, improperly signed, or lacking the required exhibits or fees will be rejected by the Department and returned to the applicant for completion.

(12) Within 15 days after receiving the application, the Department will preliminarily review the application to determine the adequacy of the information submitted:

(a) If the Department determines that additional information is needed, the Department will promptly ask the applicant for the needed information. The application will not be considered complete for processing until the requested information is received. The application will be considered withdrawn if the applicant fails to submit the requested information within 90 days of the request;

(b) If, in the opinion of the Department, additional measures are necessary to gather facts regarding the application, the Department will notify the applicant that such measures will be instituted along with the timetable and procedures to be followed. The application will not be considered complete for processing until the necessary additional fact-finding measures are completed. When the information in the application is deemed adequate for processing, the Department will so notify the applicant .

(13) If at any time while processing the application, the Department determines that additional information is needed, the Department will promptly ask the applicant for the needed information. The application will not be considered complete for processing until the requested information is received. The application will be considered withdrawn if the applicant fails to submit the requested information within 90 days of the request.

(14) If, upon review of an application, the Department determines that a permit is not required, the Department will so notify the applicant in writing. Such notification is a final action by the Department on the application.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468 & 468A

Hist.: DEQ 42, f. 4-5-72, ef. 4-15-72; DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033; DEQ 20-1979, f. & ef. 6-29-79; DEQ 13-1988, f. & cert. ef. 6-17-88; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0175; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1770; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01, Renumbered from 340-014-0020 & 340-014-0030; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0052

Construction ACDP

(1) Purpose. A Construction ACDP is a permit for approval of Type 3 construction or modification changes as specified in OAR 340-210-0220. The Construction ACDP includes requirements for the construction or modification of stationary sources or air pollution control equipment and does not by itself provide authorization to operate the new construction or modification. A new or modified Standard ACDP or Oregon Title V Operating Permit is required before operation of the new construction or modification. A Construction ACDP may be used for the following situations:

(a) For complex construction or modification projects that require an extended period of time to construct, the Construction ACDP may provide construction approval faster than issuance of a Standard ACDP or modified Standard ACDP because the operating requirements would not need to be included in the permit.

(b) For Oregon Title V Operating Permit sources, the Construction ACDP may include the requirements of OAR 340-218-0050 and follow the external review procedures in 340-218-0210 and 340-218-0230 so that the requirements may later be incorporated into the Oregon Title V Operating Permit by an administrative amendment. If the applicant elects to incorporate the Construction ACDP by administrative amendment, all of the application submittal, permit content, and permit issuance requirements of OAR 340 division 218 must be met for the Construction ACDP

(2) Application requirements. Any person requesting a Construction ACDP must:

(a) Submit an application in accordance with OAR 340-216-0040 and provide the information specified in 340-216-0040(1) as it relates to the proposed new construction or modification; and

(b) Provide a list of any applicable requirements related to the new construction or modification.

(3) Fees. Applicants for a Construction ACDP must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of OAR 340-216-0020.

(4) Permit content. A Construction ACDP must include at least the following:

(a) A requirement that construction must commence within 18 months after the permit is issued;

(b) A requirement to construct in accordance with approved plans;

(c) A requirement to comply with all applicable requirements;

(d) Emission limits for affected stationary sources;

(e) Performance standards for affected stationary sources and air pollution control equipment;

(f) Performance test requirements;

(g) Monitoring requirements, if specialized equipment is required (e.g., continuous monitoring systems);

(h) Notification and reporting requirements (construction status reports, startup dates, source test plans, CEMS performance specification testing plans, etc.);

(i) General ACDP conditions for incorporating generally applicable requirements;

(j) A requirement to modify the operating permit before commencing operation of the new construction or modification;

(k) A permit expiration date of no more than 5 years; and

(l) Oregon Title V Permit requirements as specified in OAR 340-218-0050, if the applicant requests the external review procedures in OAR 340-218-0210 and 340-218-0230.

(5) Permit issuance procedures:

(a) A Construction ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category III permit actions.

(b) For sources subject to the Oregon Title V Operating Permit program, the applicant may ask for the external review procedures in OAR 340-218-0210 and 340-218-0230 in addition to the requirements of OAR 340 division 209 to allow the Construction ACDP to be incorporated into the Oregon Title V Operating Permit later by an administrative amendment provided the requirements of (1)(b) are met.

(c) Issuance of a modified Construction ACDP requires one of the following, as applicable:

(A) Non-technical modifications and non-NSR Basic and Simple technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category I permit actions.

(B) Non-NSR/PSD Moderate and Complex technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category II permit actions.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0054

Short Term Activity ACDPs

(1) Application requirements. Any person requesting a Short Term Activity ACDP must apply in writing, fully describing the emergency and the proposed activities, operations, and emissions. The application must include the fees specified in section (2) of this rule.

(2) Fees. Applicants for a Short Term Activity ACDP must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of 340-216-0020.

(3) Permit content.

(a) This permit includes conditions that ensure adequate protection of property and preservation of public health, welfare, and resources.

(b) A Short Term Activity ACDP does not include a PSEL for any air contaminants discharged as a result of the permitted activity.

(c) A Short Term Activity ACDP automatically terminates 60 days from the date of issuance and may not be renewed.

(d) A Short Term Activity ACDPs will be properly conditioned to ensure adequate protection of property and preservation of public health, welfare and resources.

(4) Permit issuance procedures. A Short Term Activity ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category I permit actions.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 42, f. 4-5-72, ef. 4-15-72; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 22-1996, f. & cert. ef. 10-22-96; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01, Renumbered from 340-014-0050; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0056

Basic ACDPs

(1) Application requirements. Any person requesting a Basic ACDP must submit an application in accordance with OAR 340-216-0040 and provide the information specified in OAR 340-216-0040(1).

(2) Fees. Applicants for a new Basic ACDP must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of 340-216-0020.

(3) Permit content:

(a) A Basic ACDP contains only the most significant and relevant rules applicable to the source;

(b) A Basic ACDP does not contain a PSEL;

(c) A Basic ACDP requires a simplified annual report be submitted to the Department; and

(d) A Basic ACDP may be issued for a period not to exceed ten years.

(4) Permit issuance procedures. A Basic ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category I permit actions.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0060

General Air Contaminant Discharge Permits

(1) Applicability.

(a) The Department may issue a General ACDP under the following circumstances:

(A) There are several sources that involve the same or substantially similar types of operations;

(B) All requirements applicable to the covered operations can be contained in a General ACDP;

(C) The emission limitations, monitoring, recordkeeping, reporting and other enforceable conditions are the same for all operations covered by the General ACDP; and

(D) The pollutants emitted are of the same type for all covered operations.

(b) Permit content. Each General ACDP must include the following:

(A) All relevant requirements for the operations covered by the General ACDP;

(B) Generic PSELs for all pollutants emitted at more than the deminimis level in accordance with OAR 340, division 222;

(C) Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements necessary to ensure compliance with the PSEL and other applicable emissions limits and standards; and

(D) A permit expiration date not to exceed 10 years from the date of issuance.

(c) Permit issuance procedures: A new General ACDP requires public notice and opportunity for comment in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category III permit actions. A reissued General ACDP or a modification to a General ACDP requires public notice and opportunity for comment in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category II permit actions. All General ACDPs are on file and available for review at the Department’s headquarters.

(2) Source assignment:

(a) Application requirements. Any person requesting that a source be assigned to a General ACDP must submit a written application in accordance with OAR 340-216-0040 that includes the information in OAR 340-216-0040(1), specifies the General ACDP source category, and shows that the source qualifies for the General ACDP.

(b) Fees. Applicants must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of OAR 340-216-0020. The fee class for each General ACDP is as follows:

(A) Hard chrome platers — Fee Class Three;

(B) Decorative chrome platers — Fee Class Two;

(C) Halogenated solvent degreasers — batch cold — Fee Class Two;

(D) Halogenated solvent degreasers — batch vapor and in-line — Fee Class Two;

(E) Halogenated solvent degreasers — batch cold, batch vapor, and in-line — Fee Class Two;

(F) Perchloroethylene dry cleaners — Fee Class Six;

(G) Asphalt plants — Fee Class Three;

(H) Rock crushers — Fee Class Two;

(I) Ready-mix concrete — Fee Class One;

(J) Sawmills, planing mills, millwork, plywood manufacturing and veneer drying — Fee Class Three;

(K) Boilers — Fee Class Two;

(L) Crematories — Fee Class Two;

(M) Grain elevators — Fee Class One;

(N) Prepared feeds, flour, and cereal — Fee Class One;

(O) Seed cleaning — Fee Class One;

(P) Coffee roasters — Fee Class One;

(Q) Bulk gasoline plants — Fee Class One;

(R) Electric power generators — Fee Class Two;

(S) Clay ceramics — Fee Class One;

(T) Hospital sterilizers — Fee Class Four;

(U) Secondary nonferrous metals — Fee Class One;

(V) Gasoline dispensing facilities — stage I — Fee Class Five;

(W) Gasoline dispensing facilities — stage II — Fee Class Four;

(X) Wood preserving — Fee Class Four;

(Y) Metal fabrication and finishing — with two or more of the following operations — Fee Class Two;

(i) Dry abrasive blasting performed in a vented enclosure or of objects greater than 8 feet (2.4 meters) in any one dimension that uses materials that contain MFHAP or has the potential to emit MFHAP;

(ii) Spray-applied painting operation using MFHAP containing paints;

(iii) Welding operation that uses materials that contain MFHAP or has the potential to emit MFHAP and uses 2,000 pounds or more per year of MFHAP containing welding wire and rod (calculated on a rolling 12-month basis);

(Z) Metal fabrication and finishing — with only one of the operations listed in subparagraphs (2)(b)(Y)(i) through (iii) of this rule — Fee Class One:

(AA) Metal fabrication and finishing — with none of the operations listed in subparagraphs (2)(b)(Y)(i) through (iii) of this rule — Fee Class Four;

(BB) Plating and polishing — Fee Class One;

(CC) Surface coating operations — Fee Class One;

(DD) Paint stripping — Fee Class One;

(EE) Aluminum, copper, and nonferrous foundries — Fee Class Two;

(FF) Paints and allied products manufacturing — Fee Class Two;

(GG) Any General ACDP not listed above — Fee Class One.

(c) Source assignment procedures:

(A) Assignment of a source to a General ACDP is a Category I permit action and is subject to the Category I public notice requirements in accordance with OAR 340, division 209.

(B) A person is not a permittee under the General ACDP until the Department assigns the General ACDP to the person.

(C) Assignments to General ACDPs and attachment(s) terminate when the General ACDP or attachment expires or is modified, terminated or revoked.

(D) Once a source has been assigned to a General ACDP, if the assigned General ACDP does not cover all requirements applicable to the source, the other applicable requirements must be covered by assignment to one or more General ACDP Attachments in accordance with OAR 340-216-0062, otherwise the source must obtain a Simple or Standard ACDP.

(E) A source requesting to be assigned to a General ACDP Attachment, in accordance with OAR 340-216-0062, for a source category in a higher annual fee class than the General ACDP the source is currently assigned to, must be reassigned to the General ACDP for the source category in the higher annual fee class.

(3) Department Initiated Modification. If the Department determines that the conditions have changed such that a General ACDP for a category needs to be modified, the Department may issue a new General ACDP for that category and assign all existing General ACDP permit holders to the new General ACDP.

(4) Rescission. In addition to OAR 340-216-0082 (Termination or Revocation of an ACDP), the Department may rescind an individual source’s assignment to a General ACDP if the source no longer meets the requirements of this rule or the conditions of the permit, including, but not limited to a source having an ongoing, reoccurring or serious compliance problem. Upon rescinding a source’s assignment to a General ACDP the Department will place the source on a Simple or Standard ACDP. The Department may also revoke a General ACDP or attachment or both if conditions, standards or rules have changed so the permit or attachment no longer meets the requirements of this rule.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020 & 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 14-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-14-98; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1725; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 10-2001, f. & cert. ef. 8-30-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 2-2006, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-06; DEQ 8-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-8-07; DEQ 15-2008, f. & cert. ef 12-31-08; DEQ 8-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-16-09; DEQ 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0064

Simple ACDP

(1) Applicability.

(a) Sources and activities listed in Table 1, Part B of OAR 340-216-0020 that do not qualify for a General ACDP and are not required to obtain a Standard ACDP must, at a minimum, obtain a Simple ACDP.

(b) Any source required to obtain a Simple ACDP may obtain a Standard ACDP.

(c) The Department may determine that a source is ineligible for a Simple ACDP and must obtain a Standard ACDP based upon, but not limited to, the following considerations:

(A) The nature, extent, and toxicity of the source’s emissions;

(B) The complexity of the source and the rules applicable to that source;

(C) The complexity of the emission controls and potential threat to human health and the environment if the emission controls fail;

(D) The location of the source; and

(E) The compliance history of the source.

(2) Application Requirements. Any person requesting a new, modified, or renewed Simple ACDP must submit an application in accordance with OAR 340-216-0040.

(3) Fees. Applicants for a new or modified Simple ACDP must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of 340-216-0020. Annual fees for Simple ACDPs will be assessed based on the following:

(a) Low Fee — A Source may qualify for the Low Fee if:

(A) the source is, or will be, permitted under only one of the following categories from OAR 340-216-0020 Table 1, Part B (category 25. Electric Power Generation, may be included with any category listed below):

(i) Category 7. Asphalt felt and coatings;

(ii) Category 13. Boilers and other fuel burning equipment;

(iii) Category 33. Galvanizing & Pipe coating;

(iv) Category 39. Gray iron and steel foundries, malleable iron foundries, steel investment foundries, steel foundries 100 or more tons/yr. metal charged (not elsewhere identified);

(v) Category 40. Gypsum products;

(vi) Category 45. Liquid Storage Tanks subject to OAR division 232;

(vii) Category 56. Non-Ferrous Metal Foundries 100 or more tons/yr. of metal charged;

(viii) Category 57. Organic or Inorganic Industrial Chemical Manufacturing;

(ix) Category 62. Perchloroethylene Dry Cleaning;

(x) Category 73. Secondary Smelting and/or Refining of Ferrous and Non-Ferrous Metals; or

(xi) Category 85. All Other Sources not listed in Table 1 which would have actual emissions, if the source were to operate uncontrolled, of 5 or more tons a year of direct PM2.5 or PM10 if located in a PM2.5 or PM10 non-attainment or maintenance area, or 10 or more tons of any single criteria pollutant in any part of the state; and

(B) The actual emissions from the 12 months immediately preceding the invoice date, and future projected emissions are less than 5 tons/yr. PM10 in a PM10 nonattainment or maintenance area, and less than 10 tons/yr. for each criteria pollutant; and

(C) The source is not considered an air quality problem or nuisance source by the Department.

(b) High Fee — Any source required to have a Simple ACDP (OAR 340-216-0020 Table 1 Part B) that does not qualify for the Low Fee will be assessed the High Fee.

(c) If the Department determines that a source was invoiced for the Low Annual Fee but does not meet the Low Fee criteria outlined above, the source will be required to pay the difference between the Low and High Fees, plus applicable late fees in accordance with OAR 340-216-0020 Table 2. Late fees start upon issuance of the initial invoice. In this case, the Department will issue a new invoice specifying applicable fees.

(4) Permit Content.

(a) All relevant applicable requirements for source operation, including general ACDP conditions for incorporating generally applicable requirements;

(b) Generic PSELs for all pollutants emitted at more than the deminimis level in accordance with OAR 340 division 222;

(c) Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements sufficient to determine compliance with the PSEL and other emission limits and standards, as necessary; and

(d) A permit duration not to exceed 5 years

(5) Permit issuance procedures:

(a) Issuance of a new or renewed Simple ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category II permit actions.

(b) Issuance of a modification to a Simple ACDP requires one of the following procedures, as applicable:

(A) Non-technical and non-NSR/PSD Basic and Simple technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340, division 209 for Category I permit actions; or

(B) Issuance of non-NSR/PSD Moderate and Complex technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category II permit actions.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 8-2009, f. & cert. ef. 12-16-09; DEQ 1-2011, f. & cert. ef. 2-24-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0066

Standard ACDPs

(1) Application requirements. Any person requesting a new, modified, or renewed Standard ACDP must submit an application in accordance with OAR 340-216-0040 and include the following additional information as applicable:

(a) For new or modified Standard ACDPs that are not subject to NSR (OAR 340 division 224) but have emissions increases above the significant emissions rate, the application must include an analysis of the air quality and visibility (federal major sources only) impact of the source or modification, including meteorological and topographical data, specific details of models used, and other information necessary to estimate air quality impacts.

(b) For new or modified Standard ACDPs that are subject to NSR (OAR 340 division 224), the application must include the following additional information as applicable:

(A) A detailed description of the air pollution control equipment and emission reductions processes which are planned for the source or modification, and any other information necessary to determine that BACT or LAER technology, whichever is applicable, would be applied;

(B) An analysis of the air quality and visibility (federal major sources only) impact of the source or modification, including meteorological and topographical data, specific details of models used, and other information necessary to estimate air quality impacts; and

(C) An analysis of the air quality and visibility (federal major sources only) impacts, and the nature and extent of all commercial, residential, industrial, and other source emission growth, which has occurred since January 1, 1978, in the area the source or modification would affect.

(2) Fees. Applicants for a Standard ACDP must pay the fees set forth in Table 2 of 340-216-0020.

(3) Permit content. A Standard ACDP is a permit that contains:

(a) all applicable requirements, including general ACDP conditions for incorporating generally applicable requirements;

(b) Source specific PSELs or Generic PSELs, whichever are applicable, as specified in OAR 340, division 222;

(c) Testing, monitoring, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements sufficient to determine compliance with the PSEL and other emission limits and standards, as necessary; and

(d) A permit duration not to exceed 5 years.

(4) Permit issuance procedures.

(a) Issuance of a new or renewed Standard ACDP requires public notice as follows:

(A) For non-NSR permit actions, issuance of a new or renewed Standard ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category III permit actions for any increase in allowed emissions, or Category II permit actions if no emissions increase is allowed.

(B) For NSR permit actions, issuance of a new Standard ACDP requires public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category IV permit actions.

(b) Issuance of a modified Standard ACDP requires one of the following, as applicable:

(A) Non-technical modifications and non-NSR Basic and Simple technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category I permit actions.

(B) Non-NSR/PSD Moderate and Complex technical modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category II permit actions if no increase in allowed emissions, or Category III permit actions if an increase in emissions is allowed.

(C) NSR/PSD modifications require public notice in accordance with OAR 340 division 209 for Category IV permit actions.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 4-2002, f. & cert. ef. 3-14-02; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0070

Permitting Multiple Sources at a Single Adjacent or Contiguous Site

A single or contiguous site containing activities or processes that are covered by more than one General ACDP, or a source that contains processes or activities listed in more than one Part of Table 1, Part A to Part C, OAR 340-216-0020 may obtain a Standard ACDP.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468 & 468A

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468 & 468A

Hist.: DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033, DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0160; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1730; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-216-0090

Sources Subject to ACDPs and Fees

All air contaminant discharge sources listed in Table 1 OAR 340-216-0020 must obtain a permit from the Department and are subject to fees as set forth in Table 2 OAR 340-216-0020.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020 & 468A.040

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.065

Hist.: DEQ 47, f. 8-31-72, ef. 9-15-72; DEQ 63, f. 12-20-73, ef. 1-11-74; DEQ 107, f. & ef. 1-6-76; Renumbered from 340-020-0033.12; DEQ 125, f. & ef. 12-16-76; DEQ 20-1979, f. & ef. 6-29-79; DEQ 11-1983, f. & ef. 5-31-83; DEQ 6-1986, f. & ef. 3-26-86; DEQ 12-1987, f. & ef. 6-15-87; DEQ 17-1990, f. & cert. ef. 5-25-90; DEQ 27-1991, f. & cert. ef. 11-29-91; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0165; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 20-1993(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 13-1994, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-94; DEQ 21-1994, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-94; DEQ 22-1994. f. & cert. ef. 10-14-94; DEQ 22-1995, f. & cert. ef. 10-6-95; DEQ 18-1997, f. 8-27-97, cert. ef. 10-1-97; DEQ 7-1998, f. & cert. ef. 5-5-98; DEQ 12-1998, f. & cert. ef. 6-30-98; DEQ 14-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-14-98; DEQ 10-1999, f. & cert. ef. 7-1-99; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1750; DEQ 8-2000, f. & cert. ef. 6-6-00; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-222-0042

Short Term PSEL

(1) For sources located in areas with established short term SER (OAR 340-200-0020 Table 3), PSELs are required on a short term basis for those pollutants that have a short term SER. The short term averaging period is daily, unless emissions cannot be monitored on a daily basis. The averaging period for short term PSELs can never be greater than monthly.

(a) For existing sources, the initial short term PSEL will be set as:

(A) the lesser of the short term capacity or the current permit’s short term PSEL, if each is greater than or equal to the short term SER; or

(B) the generic PSEL, if either the short term capacity or the current short term PSEL is less than the short term SER.

(b) For new sources, the initial short term PSEL will be zero.

(2) If an applicant wants a short term PSEL at a rate greater than the initial short term PSEL, the applicant must:

(a) Demonstrate that the requested increase over the initial short term PSEL is less than the significant emission rate (Note: In this case new sources would get a generic PSEL); or

(b) For increases equal to or greater than the SER over the initial short term PSEL:

(A) Obtain offsets and demonstrate a net air quality benefit in accordance with OAR 340-225-0090;

(B) Obtain an allocation from an available growth allowance in accordance with the applicable maintenance plan; or

(C) For carbon monoxide, demonstrate that the source or modification will not cause or contribute to an air quality impact equal to or greater than 0.5 mg/m3 (8 hour average) and 2 mg/m3 (1 hour average).

(D) For federal major sources, demonstrate compliance with air quality related values (AQRV) protection in accordance with OAR 340-225-0070.

(3) Once the short term PSEL is increased pursuant to section (2) of this rule, the increased level becomes the initial short term PSEL for future evaluations.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-222-0045

Unassigned Emissions

(1) Purpose. The purpose of unassigned emissions is to track and manage the difference in the quantity of emissions between the netting basis and what the source could emit based on the facility’s current physical and operational design.

(2) Establishing unassigned emissions.

(a) Unassigned emissions equal the netting basis minus the source’s current PTE, minus any banked emission reduction credits. Unassigned emissions are zero if this result is negative.

(b) Unused capacity created after the effective date of this rule due to reduced potential to emit that is not banked or expired emission reduction credits (OAR 340-268-0030), increase unassigned emissions on a ton for ton basis.

(3) Maximum unassigned emissions.

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, unassigned emissions will be reduced to not more than the SER (OAR 340-200-0020 Table 2) on July 1, 2007 and at each permit renewal following this date.

(b) The netting basis is reduced by the amount that unassigned emissions are reduced.

(c) In an AQMA where the EPA requires an attainment demonstration based on dispersion modeling, unassigned emissions are not subject to reduction under this rule.

(4) Using unassigned emissions.

(a) Unassigned emissions may be used for internal netting to allow an emission increase at the existing source in accordance with the permit.

(b) Unassigned emissions may not be banked or transferred to another source.

(c) Emissions that are removed from the netting basis are unavailable for netting in any future permit actions.

(5) Upon renewal, modification or other reopening of a permit after July 1, 2002 the unassigned emissions will be established with an expiration date of July 1, 2007 for all unassigned emissions in excess of the SER. Each time the permit is renewed after July 1, 2007 the unassigned emissions will be established again and reduced upon the following permit renewal to no more than the SER for each pollutant in OAR 340-200-0020 Table 2.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020 & 468A.310

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468 & 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-224-0010

Applicability and General Prohibitions

(1) Within designated nonattainment and maintenance areas, this division applies to owners and operators of proposed major sources and major modifications for the regulated pollutant(s) for which the area is designated nonattainment or maintenance.

(2) Within attainment and unclassifiable areas, this division applies to owners and operators of proposed federal major sources and major modifications at federal major sources for the regulated pollutant(s) for which the area is designated attainment or unclassified.

(3) Owners and operators of sources that do not meet the applicability criteria of sections (1) or (2) of this rule are subject to other Department rules, including Highest and Best Practicable Treatment and Control Required (OAR 340-226-0100 through 340-226-0140), Notice of Construction and Approval of Plans (340-210-0205 through 340-210-0250), ACDPs (OAR 340 division 216), Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Contaminants (OAR 340 division 244), and Standards of Performance for New Stationary Sources (OAR 340 division 238).

(4) No owner or operator of a source that meets the applicability criteria of sections (1) or (2) of this rule may begin construction without having received an air contaminant discharge permit (ACDP) from the Department and having satisfied the requirements of this division.

(5) Beginning May 1, 2011, the pollutant GHGs is subject to regulation if:

(a) The source is a new federal major source for a regulated pollutant that is not GHGs, and also emits, will emit or will have the potential to emit 75,000 tons per year CO2e or more; or

(b) The source is or becomes a federal major source subject to OAR 340-224-0070 as a result of a major modification for a regulated pollutant that is not GHGs, and will have an emissions increase of 75,000 tons per year CO2e or more over the netting basis.

(6) Beginning July 1, 2011, in addition to the provisions in section (5) of this rule, the pollutant GHGs shall also be subject to regulation at:

(a) A new federal major source; or

(b) A source that is or becomes a federal major source when such source undertakes a major modification.

(7) Subject to the requirements in this division, the Lane Regional Air Protection Agency is designated by the Commission as the permitting agency to implement the Oregon Major New Source Review program within its area of jurisdiction. The Regional Agency’s program is subject to Department oversight. The requirements and procedures contained in this division pertaining to the Major New Source Review program shall be used by the Regional Agency to implement its permitting program until the Regional Agency adopts superseding rules which are at least as restrictive as state rules.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0220; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 26-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1900; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-224-0050

Requirements for Sources in Nonattainment Areas

Within a designated nonattainment area, proposed major sources and major modifications of a nonattainment pollutant, including VOC or NOx in a designated ozone nonattainment area or SO2 or NOx in a designated PM2.5 nonattainment area, must meet the requirements listed below:

(1) Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER). The owner or operator must apply LAER for each nonattainment pollutant or precursor(s) emitted at or above the significant emission rate (SER). LAER applies separately to the nonattainment pollutant or precursor(s) if emitted at or above a SER over the netting basis.

(a) For a major modification, the requirement for LAER applies to the following:

(A) Each emissions unit that emits the nonattainment pollutant or precursor(s) and is not included in the most recent netting basis established for that pollutant; and

(B) Each emissions unit that emits the nonattainment pollutant or precursor (s) and is included in the most recent netting basis but has been modified and the modification resulted in an increase in actual emissions above the portion of the most recent netting basis attributable to the emissions unit or the nonattainment pollutant or precursor(s).

(b) For phased construction projects, the LAER determination must be reviewed at the latest reasonable time before commencing construction of each independent phase.

(c) When determining LAER for a change that was made at a source before the current NSR application, the Department will consider technical feasibility of retrofitting required controls provided:

(A) The change was made in compliance with NSR requirements in effect when the change was made, and

(B) No limit will be relaxed that was previously relied on to avoid NSR.

(d) Modifications to individual emissions units that increase the potential to emit less than 10 percent of the SER are exempt from this section unless:

(A) They are not constructed yet;

(B) They are part of a discrete, identifiable, larger project that was constructed within the previous 5 years and is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the SER; or

(C) They were constructed without, or in violation of, the Department’s approval.

(2) Offsets and Net Air Quality Benefit. The owner or operator must obtain offsets and demonstrate that a net air quality benefit will be achieved as specified in OAR 340-225-0090.

(3) Additional Requirements:

(a) The owner or operator of a source that emits or has the potential to emit 100 tons per year or more of any regulated pollutant subject to this division must evaluate alternative sites, sizes, production processes, and environmental control techniques for the proposed source or modification and demonstrate that benefits of the proposed source or modification will significantly outweigh the environmental and social costs imposed as a result of its location, construction or modification.

(b) The owner or operator of a source that emits or has the potential to emit 100 tons per year or more of any regulated pollutant subject to this division must demonstrate that all major sources owned or operated by such person (or by an entity controlling, controlled by, or under common control with such person) in the state are in compliance, or are on a schedule for compliance, with all applicable emission limitations and standards under the Act.

(c) The owner or operator of a federal major source must meet the visibility impact requirements in OAR 340-225-0070.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 5-1983, f. & ef. 4-18-83; DEQ 27-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-92; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0240; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 10-1995, f. & cert. ef. 5-1-95; DEQ 22-1995, f. & cert. ef. 10-6-95; DEQ 26-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 16-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 1-1999, f. & cert. ef.1-25-99; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1930; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 4-12-07; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-224-0060

Requirements for Sources in Maintenance Areas

Within a designated maintenance area, proposed major sources and major modifications of a maintenance pollutant, including VOC or NOx in a designated ozone maintenance area or SO2 or NOx in a designated PM2.5 maintenance area, must meet the requirements listed below:

(1) Best Available Control Technology (BACT). Except as provided in section (5) and (6) of this rule, the owner or operator must apply BACT for each maintenance pollutant or precursor(s) emitted at or above a significant emission rate (SER). BACT applies separately to the maintenance pollutant or precursor(s) if emitted at or above a SER over the netting basis.

(a) For a major modification, the requirement for BACT applies to the following:

(A) Each emissions unit that emits the maintenance pollutant or precursor(s) and is not included in the most recent netting basis established for that pollutant; and

(B) Each emissions unit that emits the maintenance pollutant or precursor (s) and is included in the most recent netting basis but has been modified and the modification resulted in an increase in actual emissions above the portion of the most recent netting basis attributable to the emissions unit or the maintenance pollutant or precursor(s).

(b) For phased construction projects, the BACT determination must be reviewed at the latest reasonable time before commencement of construction of each independent phase.

(c) When determining BACT for a change that was made at a source before the current NSR application, the technical and economic feasibility of retrofitting required controls may be considered, provided:

(A) The change was made in compliance with NSR requirements in effect when the change was made; and

(B) No limit is being relaxed that was previously relied on to avoid NSR.

(d) Modifications to individual emissions units that increase the potential to emit less than 10 percent of the significant emission rate are exempt from this section unless:

(A) They are not constructed yet;

(B) They are part of a discrete, identifiable larger project that was constructed within the previous 5 years and that is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the significant emission rate; or

(C) They were constructed without, or in violation of, the Department’s approval.

(2) Air Quality Protection:

(a) Offsets and Net Air Quality Benefit. Except as provided in subsections (b), (c), (d) and (e) of this section, the owner or operator must obtain offsets and demonstrate that a net air quality benefit will be achieved in the area as specified in OAR 340-225-0090.

(b) Growth Allowance. The requirements of this section may be met in whole or in part in an ozone or carbon monoxide maintenance area with an allocation by the Department from a growth allowance, if available, in accordance with the applicable maintenance plan in the SIP adopted by the Commission and approved by EPA. An allocation from a growth allowance used to meet the requirements of this section is not subject to OAR 340-225-0090. Procedures for allocating the growth allowances for the Oregon portion of the Portland-Vancouver Interstate Maintenance Area for Ozone and the Portland Maintenance Area for Carbon Monoxide are contained in 340-242-0430 and 340-242-0440.

(c) In a carbon monoxide maintenance area, a proposed carbon monoxide major source or major modification is exempt from subsections (a) and (b) of this section if the owner or operator can demonstrate that the source or modification will not cause or contribute to an air quality impact equal to or greater than 0.5 mg/m3 (8 hour average) and 2 mg/m3 (1-hour average). The demonstration must comply with the requirements of OAR 340-225-0045.

(d) In a PM10 maintenance area, a proposed PM10 major source or major modification is exempt from subsection (a) of this section if the owner or operator can demonstrate, pursuant to the requirements of OAR 340-225-0045, that the source or modification will not cause or contribute to an air quality impact in excess of:

(A) 120 ug/m3 (24-hour average) or 40 ug/m3 (annual average) in the Grants Pass PM10 maintenance area;

(B) 140 ug/m3 (24-hour average) or 47 ug/m3 (annual average) in the Klamath Falls PM10 maintenance area; or

(C) 140 ug/m3 (24-hour average) or 45 ug/m3 (annual average) in the Lakeview PM10 maintenance area. In addition, a single source impact is limited to an increase of 5 ug/m3 (24-hour average) in the Lakeview PM10 maintenance area.

(e) Proposed major sources and major modifications located in or that impact the Salem Ozone Maintenance Area are exempt from OAR 340-225-0090 and section (2)(a) of this rule for VOC and NOx emissions with respect to ozone formation in the Salem Ozone Maintenance Area.

(3) The owner or operator of a source subject to this rule must provide an air quality analysis in accordance with OAR 340-225-0050(1) and (2), and 340-225-0060.

(4) Additional Requirements for Federal Major Sources: The owner or operator of a federal major source subject to this rule must provide an analysis of the air quality impacts for the proposed source or modification in accordance with OAR 340-225-0050(3) and 340-225-0070. In addition to the provisions of this section, provisions of section 340-224-0070 also apply to federal major sources.

(5) Contingency Plan Requirements. If the contingency plan in an applicable maintenance plan is implemented due to a violation of an ambient air quality standard, this section applies in addition to other requirements of this rule until the Commission adopts a revised maintenance plan and EPA approves it as a SIP revision.

(a) The requirement for BACT in section (1) of this rule is replaced by the requirement for LAER contained in OAR 340-224-0050(1).

(b) An allocation from a growth allowance may not be used to meet the requirement for offsets in section (2) of this rule.

(c) The exemption provided in subsection (2)(c) and (2)(d) of this rule for major sources or major modifications within a carbon monoxide or PM10 maintenance area no longer applies.

(6) Medford-Ashland AQMA: Proposed major sources and major modifications that would emit PM10 within the Medford-Ashland AQMA must meet the LAER emission control technology requirements in OAR 340-224-0050.

(7) Pending Redesignation Requests. This rule does not apply to a proposed major source or major modification for which a complete application to construct was submitted to the Department before the maintenance area was redesignated from nonattainment to attainment by EPA. Such a source is subject to OAR 340-224-0050.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 26-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 15-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 1-25-99; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1935; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 9-2005, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-05; DEQ 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 4-12-07; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-224-0070

Prevention of Significant Deterioration Requirements for Sources in Attainment or Unclassified Areas

Within a designated attainment or unclassified area, proposed federal major sources and major modifications at federal major sources for the pollutant(s) for which the area is designated attainment or unclassified, must meet the requirements listed below:

(1) Best Available Control Technology (BACT). The owner or operator must apply BACT for each pollutant or precursor(s) emitted at or above a significant emission rate (SER). BACT applies separately to the pollutant or precursor(s) if emitted at or above a SER over the netting basis. In the Medford-Ashland AQMA, the owner or operator of any proposed new federal major PM10 source, or proposed major modification of a federal major PM10 source must comply with the LAER emission control technology requirement in 340-224-0050(1), and is exempt from the BACT provision of this section.

(a) For a major modification, the requirement for BACT applies to the following:

(A) Each emissions unit that emits the pollutant or precursor(s) and is not included in the most recent netting basis established for that pollutant; and

(B) Each emissions unit that emits the pollutant or precursor (s) and is included in the most recent netting basis but has been modified and the modification resulted in an increase in actual emissions above the portion of the most recent netting basis attributable to the emissions unit or the nonattainment pollutant or precursor(s).

(b) For phased construction projects, the BACT determination must be reviewed at the latest reasonable time before commencement of construction of each independent phase.

(c) When determining BACT for a change that was made at a source before the current NSR application, any additional cost of retrofitting required controls may be considered provided:

(A) The change was made in compliance with NSR requirements in effect at the time the change was made, and

(B) No limit is being relaxed that was previously relied on to avoid NSR.

(d) Modifications to individual emissions units that increase the potential to emit less than 10 percent of the significant emission rate are exempt from this section unless:

(A) They are not constructed yet;

(B) They are part of a discrete, identifiable larger project that was constructed within the previous 5 years and that is equal to or greater than 10 percent of the significant emission rate; or

(C) They were constructed without, or in violation of, the Department’s approval.

(2) Air Quality Analysis: The owner or operator of a source subject to this rule must provide an analysis of the air quality impacts of each pollutant for which emissions will exceed the netting basis by the SER or more due to the proposed source or modification in accordance with OAR 340-225-0050 through 340-225-0070.

(a) For increases of direct PM2.5 or PM2.5 precursors equal to or greater than the significant emission rate, the owner or operator must provide an analysis of PM2.5 air quality impacts based on all increases of direct PM2.5 and PM2.5 precursors.

(b)The owner or operator of any source subject to this rule that significantly impacts air quality in a designated nonattainment or maintenance area must meet the requirements of net air quality benefit in 340-225-0090.

(3) Air Quality Monitoring: The owner or operator of a source subject to this rule must conduct ambient air quality monitoring in accordance with the requirements in OAR 340-225-0050.

(4) The owner or operator of a source subject to this rule and significantly impacting a PM10 maintenance area (significant air quality impact is defined in OAR 340-200-0020), must comply with the requirements of 340-224-0060(2).

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 5-1983, f. & ef. 4-18-83; DEQ 18-1984, f. & ef. 10-16-84; DEQ 14-1985, f. & ef. 10-16-85; DEQ 5-1986, f. & ef. 2-21-86; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (and corrected 5-31-88); DEQ 27-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-92, Section (8) Renumbered from 340-020-0241; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0245; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 26-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 16-1998, f. & cert. ef. 9-23-98; DEQ 1-1999, f. & cert. ef. 1-25-99; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1940; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0020

Definitions

The definitions in OAR 340-200-0020 and this rule apply to this division. If the same term is defined in this rule and 340-200-0020, the definition in this rule applies to this division.

(1) “Allowable Emissions” means the emissions rate of a stationary source calculated using the maximum rated capacity of the source (unless the source is subject to federally enforceable limits which restrict the operating rate, or hours of operation, or both) and the most stringent of the following:

(a) The applicable standards as set forth in 40 CFR Parts 60, 61 and 63;

(b) The applicable State Implementation Plan emissions limitation, including those with a future compliance date; or

(c) The emissions rate specified as a federally enforceable permit condition.

(2) “Background Light Extinction” means the reference levels (Mm-1) shown in the estimates of natural conditions as referenced in the FLAG to be representative of the PSD Class I or Class II area being evaluated.

(3) “Baseline Concentration” means:

(a) Except as provided in subsection (c), the ambient concentration level for sulfur dioxide and PM10 that existed in an area during the calendar year 1978. Actual emission increases or decreases occurring before January 1, 1978 must be included in the baseline calculation, except that actual emission increases from any source or modification on which construction commenced after January 6, 1975 must not be included in the baseline calculation;

(b) The ambient concentration level for nitrogen oxides that existed in an area during the calendar year 1988.

(c) For the area of northeastern Oregon within the boundaries of the Umatilla, Wallowa-Whitman, Ochoco, and Malheur National Forests, the ambient concentration level for PM10 that existed during the calendar year 1993. The Department may allow the source to use an earlier time period if the Department determines that it is more representative of normal emissions.

(d) For PM10 in the Medford-Ashland AQMA: the ambient PM10 concentration levels that existed during the year that EPA redesignates the AQMA to attainment for PM10.

(e) The ambient concentration level for PM2.5 that existed in an area during the calendar year 2007.

(f) If no ambient air quality data is available in an area, the baseline concentration may be estimated using modeling based on actual emissions for the years specified in subsections (a) through (e) of this section.

(4) “Competing PSD Increment Consuming Source Impacts” means the total modeled concentration above the modeled Baseline Concentration resulting from increased emissions of all other sources since the baseline concentration year that are within the Range of Influence of the source in question. Allowable Emissions may be used as a conservative estimate, in lieu of Actual Emissions, in this analysis.

(5) “Competing NAAQS Source Impacts” means total modeled concentration resulting from allowable emissions of all other sources that are within the Range of Influence of the source in question.

(6) “FLAG” refers to the Federal Land Managers’ Air Quality Related Values Work Group Phase I Report — REVISED. See 75 Federal Register 66125, October 27, 2010.

(7) “General Background Concentration” means impacts from natural sources and unidentified sources that were not explicitly modeled. The Department may determine this as site-specific ambient monitoring or representative ambient monitoring from another location.

(8) “Predicted Maintenance Area Concentration” means the future year ambient concentration predicted by the Department in the applicable maintenance plan as follows:

(a) The future year (2015) concentrations for the Grants Pass UGB are 89 μg/m3 (24-hour average) and 21 μg/m3 (annual average).

(b) The future year (2015) concentrations for the Klamath Falls UGB are 114 μg/m3 (24-hour average) and 25 μg/m3 (annual average).

(c) The future year (2025) concentrations for the Lakeview UGB are 126 μg/m3 (24-hour average) and 27 μg/m3 (annual average).

(9) “Nitrogen Deposition” means the sum of anion and cation nitrogen deposition expressed in terms of the mass of total elemental nitrogen being deposited. As an example, Nitrogen Deposition for NH4NO3 is 0.3500 times the weight of NH4NO3 being deposited.

(10) “Ozone Precursor Distance” means the distance in kilometers from the nearest boundary of a designated ozone nonattainment or maintenance area within which a major new or modified source of VOC or NOx is considered to significantly affect that designated area. The determination of significance is made by either the formula method or the demonstration method.

(a) The Formula Method.

(A) For sources with complete permit applications submitted before January 1, 2003: D = 30 km

(B) For sources with complete permit applications submitted on or after January 1, 2003: D = (Q/40) x 30 km

(C) D is the Ozone Precursor Distance in kilometers. The value for D is 100 kilometers when D is calculated to exceed 100 kilometers. Q is the larger of the NOx or VOC emissions increase from the source being evaluated in tons/year, and is quantified relative to the netting basis.

(D) If a source is located at a distance less than D from the designated area, the source is considered to have a significant effect on the designated area. If the source is located at a distance equal to or greater than D, it is not considered to have a significant effect.

(b) The Demonstration Method. An applicant may demonstrate to the Department that the source or proposed source would not significantly impact a nonattainment area or maintenance area. This demonstration may be based on an analysis of major topographic features, dispersion modeling, meteorological conditions, or other factors. If the Department determines that the source or proposed source would not significantly impact the nonattainment area or maintenance area under high ozone conditions, the Ozone Precursor Distance is zero kilometers.

(11) “Ozone Precursor Offsets” means the emission reductions required to offset emission increases from a major new or modified source located inside the designated nonattainment or maintenance area or within the Ozone Precursor Distance. Emission reductions must come from within the designated area or from within the Ozone Precursor Distance of the offsetting source as described in OAR 340-225-0090. The offsets determination is made by either the formula method or the demonstration method.

(a) The Formula Method.

(A) Required offsets (RO) for new or modified sources are determined as follows:

(i) For sources with complete permit applications submitted before January 1, 2003: RO = SQ

(ii) For sources with complete permit applications submitted on or after January 1, 2003: RO = (SQ minus (40/30 * SD))

(B) Contributing sources may provide offsets (PO) calculated as follows: PO = CQ minus (40/30 * CD)

(C) Multiple sources may contribute to the required offsets of a new source. For the formula method to be satisfied, total provided offsets (PO) must equal or exceed the required offset (RO).

(D) Definitions of factors used in paragraphs (A) (B) and (C) of this subsection:

(i) RO is the required offset of NOx or VOC in tons per year as a result of the source emissions increase. If RO is calculated to be negative, RO is set to zero;

(ii) SQ is the source emissions increase of NOx or VOC in tons per year above the netting basis;

(iii) SD is the source distance in kilometers to the nonattainment or maintenance area. SD is zero for sources located within the nonattainment or maintenance area.

(iv) PO is the provided offset from a contributing source and must be equal to or greater than zero;

(v) CQ is the contributing emissions reduction in tons per year quantified relative to contemporaneous pre-reduction actual emissions (OAR 340-268-0030(1)(b)).

(vi) CD is the contributing source distance in kilometers to the nonattainment or maintenance area. For a contributing source located within the nonattainment or maintenance area, CD equals zero.

(b) The Demonstration Method. An applicant may demonstrate to the Department using dispersion modeling or other analyses the level and location of offsets that would be sufficient to provide actual reductions in concentrations of VOC or NOx in the designated area during high ozone conditions. The modeled reductions of ambient VOC or NOx concentrations resulting from the emissions offset must be demonstrated over a greater area and over a greater period of time within the designated area as compared to the modeled ambient VOC or NOx concentrations resulting from the emissions increase from the source subject to this rule. If the Department determines that the demonstration is acceptable, then the Department will approve the offsets proposed by the applicant. The demonstration method does not apply to sources located inside an ozone nonattainment area.

(12) “Range of Influence (ROI)” means:

(a) For PSD Class II and Class III areas, the Range of Influence of a competing source (in kilometers) is defined by:

(A) ROI (km) = Q (tons/year) / K (tons/year km).

(B) Definition of factors used in paragraph (A) of this subsection:

(i) ROI is the distance a source has an effect on an area and is compared to the distance from a potential competing source to the Significant Impact Area of a proposed new source. Maximum ROI is 50 km, however the Department may request that sources at a distance greater than 50 km be included in a competing source analysis.

(ii) Q is the emission rate of the potential competing source in tons per year.

(iii) K (tons/year km) is a pollutant specific constant as defined in the table below:

(b) For PSD Class I areas, the Range of Influence of a competing source includes emissions from all sources that occur within the modeling domain of the source being evaluated. The Department determines the modeling domain on a case-by-case basis.

(13) “Source Impact Area” means a circular area with a radius extending from the source to the largest distance to where predicted impacts from the source or modification equal or exceed the Class II Significant Air Quality Impact levels set out in OAR 340-200-0020 Table 1. This definition only applies to PSD Class II areas and is not intended to limit the distance for PSD Class I modeling.

(14) “Sulfur Deposition” means the sum of anion and cation sulfur deposition expressed in terms of the total mass of elemental sulfur being deposited. As an example, sulfur deposition for (NH4)2SO4 is 0.2427 times the weight of (NH4)2SO4 being deposited.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 12-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02 thru 4-6-03; Administrative correction 11-10-03; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 9-2005, f. & cert. ef. 9-9-05; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0030

Procedural Requirements

Information Required. In addition to the requirements defined in OAR 340-216-0040, the owner or operator of a source (where required by divisions 222 or 224) must submit all information necessary to perform any analysis or make any determination required under these rules. Such information must include, but is not limited to:

(1) Emissions data for all existing and proposed emission points from the source or modification. This data must represent maximum emissions for the averaging times by pollutant consistent with the ambient air quality standards in division 202.

(2) Stack parameter data (height above ground, exit diameter, exit velocity, and exit temperature data for all existing and proposed emission points from the source or modification;

(3) An analysis of the air quality and visibility impact of the source or modification, including meteorological and topographical data, specific details of models used, and other information necessary to estimate air quality impacts; and

(4) An analysis of the air quality and visibility impacts, and the nature and extent of all commercial, residential, industrial, and other source emission growth, that has occurred since January 1, 1978, in the area the source or modification would significantly affect.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0045

Requirements for Analysis in Maintenance Areas

Modeling: For determining compliance with the limits established in OAR 340-224-0060(2)(c) and (2)(d), NAAQS, and PSD Increments, the following methods must be used:

(1) For each maintenance pollutant and its precursors, a single source impact analysis is sufficient to show compliance with standards, PSD increments, and limits if modeled impacts from emission increases equal to or greater than a significant emission rate above the netting basis due to the proposed source or modification being evaluated are less than the Class II Significant Air Quality Impact Levels specified in OAR 340-200-0020 Table 1.

(2) If the requirement in section (1) of this rule is not satisfied, the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification being evaluated must perform competing source modeling as follows:

(a) For demonstrating compliance with the maintenance area limits established in OAR 340-224-0060(2)(c) and (2)(d), the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification must show that modeled impacts from the proposed increased emissions plus Competing Source Impacts, plus predicted maintenance area concentration are less than the limits for all averaging times.

(b) For demonstrating compliance with the NAAQS, the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification must show that the total modeled impacts plus total Competing NAAQS Source Impacts plus General Background Concentrations are less than the NAAQS for all averaging

(c) For demonstrating compliance with the PSD Increments (as defined in OAR 340-202-0210, Table 1), the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification must show that modeled impacts from the proposed increased emissions (above the baseline concentration) plus competing PSD Increment Consuming Source Impacts (above the baseline concentration) are less than the PSD increments for all averaging times.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A, 468A.025 & 468A.035

Hist.: DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0050

Requirements for Analysis in PSD Class II and Class III Areas

Modeling: For determining compliance with the NAAQS and PSD Increments in PSD Class II and Class III areas, the following methods must be used:

(1) For each pollutant and its precursors, a single source impact analysis is sufficient to show compliance with standards and PSD increments if modeled impacts from emission increases equal to or greater than a significant emission rate above the netting basis due to the proposed source or modification being evaluated are less than the Class II Significant Air Quality Impact Levels specified in OAR 340-200-0020, Table 1.

(2) If the requirement in section (1) of this rule is not satisfied, the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification being evaluated must perform competing source modeling as follows:

(a) For demonstrating compliance with the PSD Increments (as defined in OAR 340-202-0210, Table 1), the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification must show that modeled impacts from the proposed increased emissions (above the modeled Baseline Concentration) plus Competing PSD Increment Consuming Source Impacts (above the modeled Baseline Concentration) are less than the PSD increments for all averaging times.

(b) For demonstrating compliance with the NAAQS, the owner or operator of a proposed source must show that the total modeled impacts plus total Competing NAAQS Source Impacts plus General Background Concentrations are less than the NAAQS for all averaging times.

(3) Additional Impact Modeling:

(a) When referred to this rule by divisions 222 or 224, the owner or operator of a source must provide an analysis of the impairment to visibility, soils and vegetation that would occur as a result of the source or modification, and general commercial, residential, industrial and other growth associated with the source or modification. As a part of this analysis, deposition modeling analysis is required for sources emitting heavy metals above the significant emission rates as defined in OAR 340-200-0020, Table 2. Concentration and deposition modeling may also be required for sources emitting other compounds on a case-by-case basis;

(b) The owner or operator must provide an analysis of the air quality concentration projected for the area as a result of general commercial, residential, industrial and other growth associated with the source or modification.

(4) Air Quality Monitoring:

(a)(A) When referred to this rule by division 224, the owner or operator of a source must submit with the application an analysis of ambient air quality in the area impacted by the proposed project. This analysis, which is subject to the Department’s approval, must be conducted for each pollutant potentially emitted at a significant emission rate by the proposed source or modification. The analysis must include continuous air quality monitoring data for any pollutant that may be emitted by the source or modification, except for volatile organic compounds. The data must relate to the year preceding receipt of the complete application and must have been gathered over the same time period. The Department may allow the owner or operator to demonstrate that data gathered over some other time period would be adequate to determine that the source or modification would not cause or contribute to a violation of an ambient air quality standard or any applicable pollutant increment. Pursuant to the requirements of these rules, the owner or operator must submit for the Department’s approval, a preconstruction air quality monitoring plan. This plan must be submitted in writing at least 60 days prior to the planned beginning of monitoring and approved in writing by the Department before monitoring begins.

(B) Required air quality monitoring must be conducted in accordance with 40 CFR 58 Appendix B, “Quality Assurance Requirements for Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) Air Monitoring” (July 1, 2000) and with other methods on file with the Department.

(C) The Department may exempt the owner or operator of a proposed source or modification from preconstruction monitoring for a specific pollutant if the owner or operator demonstrates that the air quality impact from the emissions increase would be less than the amounts listed below or that modeled competing source concentration (plus General Background Concentration) of the pollutant within the Source Impact Area are less than the following significant monitoring concentrations:

(i) Carbon monoxide; 575 ug/m3, 8 hour average;

(ii) Nitrogen dioxide; 14 ug/m3, annual average;

(iii) PM10; 10 ug/m3, 24 hour average;

(iv) PM2.5; 4 ug/m3, 24-hour average;

(v) Sulfur dioxide; 13 ug/m3, 24 hour average;

(vi) Ozone; Any net increase of 100 tons/year or more of VOCs from a source or modification subject to PSD requires an ambient impact analysis, including the gathering of ambient air quality data. However, requirement for ambient air monitoring may be exempted if existing representative monitoring data shows maximum ozone concentrations are less than 50% of the ozone NAAQS based on a full season of monitoring;

(vii) Lead; 0.1 ug/m3, 24 hour average;

(viii) Fluorides; 0.25 ug/m3, 24 hour average;

(ix) Total reduced sulfur; 10 ug/m3, 1 hour average;

(x) Hydrogen sulfide; 0.04 ug/m3, 1 hour average;

(xi) Reduced sulfur compounds; 10 ug/m3, 1 hour average.

(D) The Department may allow the owner or operator of a source (where required by divisions 222 or 224) to substitute post construction monitoring for the requirements of (4)(a)(A) for a specific pollutant if the owner or operator demonstrates that the air quality impact from the emissions increase would not cause or contribute to an exceedance of any air quality standard. This analysis must meet the requirements of 340-225-0050(2)(b) and must use representative or conservative General Background Concentration data.

(E) When PM10 preconstruction monitoring is required by this section, at least four months of data must be collected, including the season(s) the Department judges to have the highest PM10 levels. PM10 must be measured in accordance with 40 CFR part 50, Appendix J (July 1, 1999). In some cases, a full year of data will be required.

(b) After construction has been completed, the Department may require ambient air quality monitoring as a permit condition to establish the effect of emissions, other than volatile organic compounds, on the air quality of any area that such emissions could affect.

[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0060

Requirements for Demonstrating Compliance with Standards and Increments in PSD Class I Areas

For determining compliance with standards and increments in PSD Class I areas, the following methods must be used:

(1) Before January 1, 2003, the owner or operator of a source (where required by divisions 222 or 224) must model impacts and demonstrate compliance with standards and increments on all PSD Class I areas that may be affected by the source or modification.

(2) On or after January 1, 2003, the owner or operator of a source (where required by divisions 222 or 224) must meet the following requirements:

(a) For each pollutant and its precursors, a single source impact analysis will be sufficient to show compliance with increments if modeled impacts from emission increases equal to or greater than a significant emission rate above the netting basis due to the proposed source or modification being evaluated are demonstrated to be less than the Class I impact levels specified in OAR 340-200-0020, Table 1.

(b) If the requirement in subsection (a) of this section is not satisfied, the owner or operator must also show that the increased source impacts (above Baseline Concentration) plus Competing PSD Increment Consuming Source Impacts are less than the PSD increments for all averaging times.

(c) For each pollutant and its precursors, a single source impact analysis will be sufficient to show compliance with standards if modeled impacts from emission increases equal to or greater than a significant emission rate above the netting basis due to the proposed source or modification being evaluated are demonstrated to be less than the Class II impact levels specified in OAR 340-200-0020, Table 1.

(d) If the requirement of subsection (2)(a) of this section is not satisfied, and background monitoring data for each PSD Class I area shows that the NAAQS is more controlling than the PSD increment then the source must also demonstrate compliance with the NAAQS by showing that their total modeled impacts plus total modeled Competing NAAQS Source Impacts plus General Background Concentrations are less than the NAAQS for all averaging times.

[ED. NOTE: Table referenced is available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A

Hist.: DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-225-0090

Requirements for Demonstrating a Net Air Quality Benefit

Demonstrations of net air quality benefit for offsets must include the following:

(1) Ozone areas (VOC and NOx emissions). For sources capable of impacting a designated ozone nonattainment or maintenance area;

(a) Offsets for VOC and NOx are required if the source will be located within the designated area or within the Ozone Precursor Distance.

(b) The amount and location of offsets must be determined in accordance with this subsection:

(A)For new or modified sources locating within a designated nonattainment area, the offset ratio is 1.1:1. These offsets must come from within either the same designated nonattainment area as the new or modified source or another ozone nonattainment area (with equal or higher nonattainment classification) that contributes to a violation of the NAAQS in the same designated nonattainment area as the new or modified source.

(B) For new or modified sources locating within a designated maintenance area, the offset ratio is 1.1:1. These offsets may come from within either the designated area or the ozone precursor distance.

(C) For new or modified sources locating outside the designated area, but within the ozone precursor distance, the offset ratio is 1:1. These offsets may come from within either the designated area or the ozone precursor distance.

(D) Offsets from outside the designated area but within the Ozone Precursor Distance must be from sources affecting the designated area in a comparable manner to the proposed emissions increase. Methods for determining offsets are described in the Ozone Precursor Offsets definition (OAR 340-225-0020(11)).

(c) In lieu of obtaining offsets, the owner or operator may obtain an allocation at the rate of 1:1 from a growth allowance, if available, in an applicable maintenance plan.

(d) Sources within or affecting the Medford Ozone Maintenance Area are exempt from the requirement for NOx offsets relating to ozone formation.

(e) Sources within or affecting the Salem Ozone Maintenance Area are exempt from the requirement for VOC and NOx offsets relating to ozone formation.

(2) Non-Ozone areas (PM2.5, PM10, SO2, CO, NOx, and Lead emissions):

(a) For a source locating within a designated nonattainment area, the owner or operator must comply with paragraphs (A) through (E) of this subsection:

(A) Obtain offsets from within the same designated nonattainment area for the nonattainment pollutant(s);

(B) Except as provided in paragraph (C) of this subsection, provide a minimum of 1:1 offsets for each nonattainment pollutant and precursor with emission increases over the Netting Basis;

(C) For PM2.5; inter-pollutant offsets are allowed as follows:

(i) 1 ton of direct PM2.5 may be used to offset 40 tons of SO2;

(ii) 1 ton of direct PM2.5 may be used to offset 100 tons of NOx;

(iii) 40 tons of SO2 may be used to offset 1 ton of direct PM2.5;

(iv) 100 tons of NOx may be used to offset 1 ton of direct PM2.5.

 (D) Provide a net air quality benefit within the designated nonattainment area. “Net Air Quality Benefit” means:

(i) Offsets obtained result in a reduction in concentration at a majority of the modeled receptors and the emission increases from the proposed source or modification will result in less than a significant impact level increase at all modeled receptors; or

(ii) For a small scale local energy project and any infrastructure related to that project located in the same area, a reduction of the nonattainment pollutant emissions equal to the ratio specified in this subsection, provided that the proposed major source or major modification would not cause or contribute to a violation of the national ambient air quality standard or otherwise pose a material threat to compliance with air quality standards in the nonattainment area.

(E) Provide offsets sufficient to demonstrate reasonable further progress toward achieving the NAAQS.

(b) For a source locating outside a designated nonattainment area but causing a significant air quality impact on the area, the owner or operator must provide offsets sufficient to reduce the modeled impacts below the significant air quality impact level (OAR 340-200-0020) at all receptors within the designated nonattainment area. These offsets may come from within or outside the designated nonattainment area.

(c) For a source locating inside or causing a significant air quality impact on a designated maintenance area, the owner or operator must either provide offsets sufficient to reduce modeled impacts below the significant air quality impact level (OAR 340-200-0020) at all receptors within the designated maintenance area or obtain an allocation from an available growth allowance as allowed by an applicable maintenance plan. These offsets may come from within or outside the designated maintenance area.

(A) Medford-Ashland AQMA: Proposed new major PM10 sources or major PM10 modifications locating within the AQMA that are required to provide emission offsets under OAR 340-224-0060(2)(a) must provide reductions in PM10 emissions equal to 1.2 times the emissions increase over the netting basis from the new or modified source, and must provide a net air quality benefit within the AQMA. “Net Air Quality Benefit” means:

(i) A reduction in concentration at a majority of the modeled receptors and less than a significant impact level increase at all modeled receptors; or

(ii) For a small scale local energy project and any infrastructure related to that project located in the same area, a reduction of the maintenance pollutant emissions equal to the ratio specified in this paragraph, provided that the proposed major source or major modification would not cause or contribute to a violation of the national ambient air quality standard or otherwise pose a material threat to compliance with air quality standards in the maintenance area.

(B) Medford-Ashland AQMA: Proposed new major PM10 sources or major PM10 modifications located outside the Medford-Ashland AQMA that cause a significant air quality impact on the AQMA must provide reductions in PM10 emissions sufficient to reduce modeled impacts below the significant air quality impact level (OAR 340-200-0020) at all receptors within the AQMA.

(3) Except as provided in paragraph (2)(a)(C) of this rule, the emission reductions used as offsets must be of the same type of pollutant as the emissions from the new source or modification. Sources of PM10 must be offset with particulate in the same size range.

(4) The emission reductions used as offsets must be contemporaneous, that is, the reductions must take effect before the time of startup but not more than two years before the submittal of a complete permit application for the new source or modification. This time limitation may be extended through banking, as provided for in OAR 340 division 268, Emission Reduction Credit Banking. In the case of replacement facilities, the Department may allow simultaneous operation of the old and new facilities during the startup period of the new facility, if net emissions are not increased during that time period. Any emission reductions must be federally enforceable at the time of the issuance of the permit.

(5) Offsets required under this rule must meet the requirements of Emissions Reduction Credits in OAR 340 division 268.

(6) Emission reductions used as offsets must be equivalent in terms of short term, seasonal, and yearly time periods to mitigate the effects of the proposed emissions.

NOTE: This rule is included in the State of Oregon Clean Air Act Implementation Plan as adopted by the EQC under OAR 340-200-0040.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 25-1981, f. & ef. 9-8-81; DEQ 5-1983, f. & ef. 4-18-83; DEQ 8-1988, f. & cert. ef. 5-19-88 (and corrected 5-31-88); DEQ 22-1989, f. & cert. ef. 9-26-89; DEQ 27-1992, f. & cert. ef. 11-12-92; DEQ 4-1993, f. & cert. ef. 3-10-93; DEQ 12-1993, f. & cert. ef. 9-24-93, Renumbered from 340-020-0260; DEQ 19-1993, f. & cert. ef. 11-4-93; DEQ 4-1995, f. & cert. ef. 2-17-95; DEQ 26-1996, f. & cert. ef. 11-26-96; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-028-1970; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-030-0111; DEQ 6-2001, f. 6-18-01, cert. ef. 7-1-01, Renumbered from 340-224-0090 & 340-240-0260; DEQ 11-2002, f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02; DEQ 12-2002(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-8-02 thru 4-6-03; Administrative correction 11-10-03; DEQ 1-2004, f. & cert. ef. 4-14-04; DEQ 1-2005, f. & cert. ef. 1-4-05; DEQ 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 4-12-07; DEQ 10-2010(Temp), f. 8-31-10, cert. ef. 9-1-10 thru 2-28-11; Administrative correction, 3-29-11; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-228-0300

Federal Regulations Adopted by Reference

(1) 40 CFR Parts 72, 75, and 76 (July 2, 2010) are by this reference adopted and incorporated herein, for purposes of implementing an acid rain program that meets the requirements of title IV of the Clean Air Act. The term “permitting authority” means the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality and the term “Administrator” shall mean the Administrator of the United States Environmental Protection Agency.

(2) If the provisions or requirements of 40 CFR Part 72 conflict with or are not included in OAR 340 divisions 218 or 220, the Part 72 provisions and requirements shall apply and take precedence.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020 & 468.310(2)

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468A.025

Hist.: DEQ 32-1994, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-94; DEQ 14-1999, f. & cert. ef. 10-14-99, Renumbered from 340-022-0075; DEQ 22-2000, f. & cert. ef. 12-18-00; DEQ 13-2006, f. & cert. ef. 12-22-06; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

340-246-0230

Safety Net Source Air Toxics Emissions Reduction Measures in Permit

(1) Public Participation. The Department will hold public informational meetings to discuss proposed air toxics emissions reduction measures. After the informational meetings, the Department will provide at least 40-days notice before holding a public hearing to collect official comments on the proposed air toxics emissions reduction measures.

(2) Permit or Permit Modification. After considering public comments, the Department will propose air toxics emissions reduction measures to be placed in the source’s permit, according to the reopening process for Oregon Title V permits in OAR 340-218-0200 or Oregon Title V Permit issuance in 340-218-0120 or Department Initiated Permit Modifications in 340-216-0084 or Air Contaminant Discharge Permit issuance in 340-216-0020, Table 1, Part B, line 74.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.035, 468A.010(1) & 468A.015

Stats. Implemented:

Hist.: DEQ 15-2003, f. & cert. ef. 11-3-03; DEQ 5-2011, f. 4-29-11, cert. ef. 5-1-11

 

Rule Caption: Oregon Low Emission Vehicles – 2011 Update.

Adm. Order No.: DEQ 6-2011

Filed with Sec. of State: 4-29-2011

Certified to be Effective: 4-29-11

Notice Publication Date: 1-1-2011

Rules Amended: 340-257-0030, 340-257-0050, 340-257-0060, 340-257-0070, 340-257-0090, 340-257-0110, 340-257-0120, 340-257-0140

Subject: Oregon adopted California’s motor vehicle emissions standards as allowed by the federal Clean Air Act and is obligated to have the same rule requirements as California. This rulemaking updates Oregon’s Low Emission Vehicle program by incorporating California’s current regulations. The most prominent changes allow auto manufacturers the option to use streamlined methods to demonstrate they meet greenhouse gas emission limits. The rule amendments also adjust Zero Emission Vehicle goals to allow the use of Plug-in Hybrid Electric Vehicles and provide numerous additional changes.

Rules Coordinator: Maggie Vandehey—(503) 229-6878

340-257-0030

Definitions and Abbreviations

The definitions in OAR 340-200-0020, the definitions in CCR, Title 13, sections incorporated by reference, and the definitions in this rule apply to this division. If the same term is defined in different passages, the definitions in this rule apply first, followed by definitions in CCR Title 13 sections incorporated by reference, and finally the definitions in OAR 340-200-0020.

(1) “Assembled vehicle” means a motor vehicle that:

(a) Is an assembled vehicle under ORS 801.130; or

(b) Is a replica vehicle under ORS 801.425.

(c) Will be used for occasional transportation, exhibitions, club activities, parades, tours, testing its operation, repairs or maintenance and similar uses; and

(d) Will not be used for general daily transportation.

(2) “ATPZEV” means advanced technology Partial Zero Emission Vehicle as defined in CCR, Title 13, section 1962.1(i) California effective date 2/13/2010.

(3) “CARB” means California Air Resources Board.

(4) “CCR” means California Code of Regulations.

(5) “Custom vehicle” means a motor vehicle that:

(a) Is a street rod under ORS 801.513; or

(b) Was manufactured to resemble a vehicle at least twenty-five (25) years old and of a model year after 1948; and

(A) Has been altered from the manufacturer’s original design; or

(B) Has a body constructed from non-original materials.

(6) “Emergency vehicle” means a vehicle as defined in ORS 801.260 that is equipped with lights and sirens as required under ORS 820.350 and 820.370 and that is any of the following:

(a) Operated by public police, fire or airport security agencies.

(b) Designated as an emergency vehicle by a federal agency.

(c) Designated as an emergency vehicle by the Director of Transportation.

(7) “Emission credits” are earned when a manufacturer’s reported fleet average is less than the required fleet average. Credits are calculated according to formulas contained in CCR, Title 13, section 1961(c) California effective date 12/8/2010 and 1961.1(b) California effective date 4/1/2010.

(8) “Emission debits” are earned when a manufacturer’s reported fleet average exceeds the required fleet average. Debits are calculated according to formulas contained in CCR, Title 13, section 1961(c) California effective date 12/8/2010 and 1961.1(b) California effective date 4/1/2010.

(9) “Fleet average greenhouse gas emission requirements” are generally referred to as limitations on greenhouse gas exhaust mass emission values from passenger cars, light-duty trucks and medium-duty passenger vehicles. The fleet average greenhouse gas emission requirements are set forth in CCR, Title 13, section 1961.1(b), and incorporated herein by reference. California effective date 4/1/2010

(10) “Gross vehicle weight rating” or “GVWR” is the value specified by the manufacturer as the loaded weight of a single vehicle.

(11) “Independent low volume manufacturer” is defined in CCR, Title 13, section 1900(b)(8) and incorporated herein by reference. California effective date 4/17/2009.

(12) “Intermediate volume manufacturer” is defined in CCR, Title 13, section 1900(b)(9) and incorporated herein by reference. California effective date 4/17/2009.

(13) “Large volume manufacturer” is defined in CCR, Title 13, section 1900(b)(10) and incorporated herein by reference. California effective date 4/17/2009.

(14) “Light duty truck” is any 2000 and subsequent model year motor vehicle certified to the standards in CCR, Title 13, section 1961(a)(1) California effective date 12/8/2010, rated at 8,500 pounds gross vehicle weight or less, and any other motor vehicle rated at 6,000 pounds gross vehicle weight or less, which is designed primarily for the purposes of transportation of property, is a derivative of such vehicle, or is available with special features enabling off-street or off-highway operation and use.

(15) “Medium duty passenger vehicle” (MDPV) is any medium-duty vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of less than 10,000 pounds that is designed primarily for the transportation of persons. The medium-duty passenger vehicle definition does not include any vehicle which

(a) Is an “incomplete truck” i.e., is a truck that does not have the primary load carrying device or container attached; or

(b) Has a seating capacity of more than 12 persons; or

(c) Is designed for more than 9 persons in seating rearward of the driver’s seat; or

(d) Is equipped with an open cargo area of 72.0 inches in interior length or more. A covered box not readily accessible from the passenger compartment will be considered an open cargo area for the purpose of this definition.

(16) “Medium duty vehicle” means any pre-1995 model year heavy-duty vehicle having a manufacturer’s gross vehicle weight rating of 8,500 pounds or less; any 1992 through 2006 model-year heavy-duty low-emission, ultra-low-emission, super-ultra-low-emission or zero-emission vehicle certified to the standards in section 1960.1(h)(2) having a manufacturer’s gross vehicle weight rating of 14,000 pounds or less; and any 2000 and subsequent model heavy-duty low-emission, ultra-low-emission, super-ultra-low-emission or zero-emission vehicle certified to the standards in Section 1961(a)(1) or 1962.1 having a manufacturer’s gross vehicle weight rating between 8,501 and 14,000 pounds.

(17) “Model year” is the manufacturer’s annual production period which includes January 1 of a calendar year or, if the manufacturer has no annual production period, the calendar year. In the case of any vehicle manufactured in two or more stages, the time of manufacture is the date of completion of the chassis.

(18) “Non-methane organic gas” (NMOG) is the sum of non-oxygenated and oxygenated hydrocarbons contained in a gas sample as measured in accordance with the “California Non-Methane Organic Gas Test Procedures,” which is incorporated herein by reference.

(19) “NMOG fleet average emissions” is a motor vehicle manufacturer’s average vehicle emissions of all non-methane organic gases from passenger cars and light duty trucks in any model year subject to this regulation delivered for sale in Oregon.

(20) “Passenger car” is any motor vehicle designed primarily for transportation of persons and having a design capacity of twelve persons or less.

(21) “PZEV” means partial zero emission vehicle as defined in CCR, Title 13, section 1962.1(j) California effective date 2/13/2010.

(22) “Small volume manufacturer” is defined as set forth in CCR, Title 13, section 1900(b)(22) California effective date 4/17/2009, and incorporated herein by reference.

(23) “ZEV” means zero emission vehicle as defined in CCR Title 13, section 1962.1(j) California effective date 2/13/2010.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0050

Incorporation by Reference

(1) For purposes of applying the incorporated sections of the California Code of Regulations, “California” means “Oregon” and “Air Resources Board (ARB)” or “California Air Resources Board (CARB)” means Department of Environmental Quality or Environmental Quality Commission depending on context, unless otherwise specified in this division or the application is clearly inappropriate.

(2) Emission standards, warranty, recall and other California provisions adopted by reference. Each manufacturer of new 2009 and subsequent model year passenger cars, light duty trucks, and medium duty vehicles must comply with each applicable standard specified in California Code of Regulations (CCR), Title 13 as incorporated by reference herein:

(a) Section 1900: Definitions. California effective date 4/17/09.

(b) Section 1956.8(g) and (h): Exhaust Emission Standards and Test Procedures — 1985 and Subsequent Model Heavy Duty Engines and Vehicles. California effective date 12/8/10.

(c) Section 1960.1: Exhaust Emission Standards and Test Procedures — 1981 and through 2006 Model Passenger Cars, Light-Duty and Medium-Duty Vehicles. California effective date 3/26/04.

(d) Section 1961: Exhaust Emission Standards and Test Procedures — 2004 and Subsequent Model Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles. California effective date 12/8/10.

(e) Section 1961.1: Greenhouse Gas Exhaust Emission Standards and Test Procedures - 2009 and Subsequent Model Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles. California effective date 4/1/10.

 (f) Section 1962.1: Zero-Emission Vehicle Standards for 2009 and Subsequent Model Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles. California effective date 2/13/10.

(g) Section 1962.2: Electric Vehicle Charging Requirements. California effective date 4/17/09.

(h) Section 1965: Emission Control and Smog Index Labels - 1979 and Subsequent Model Year Vehicles. California effective date 6/16/08.

(i) Section 1968.2: Malfunction and Diagnostic System Requirements - 2004 and Subsequent Model Year Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles. California effective date 6/17/10.

(j) Section 1968.5: Enforcement of Malfunction and Diagnostic System Requirements for 2004 and Subsequent Model Year Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks, and Medium-Duty Vehicles and Engines. California effective date 11/9/07.

(k) Section 1976: Standards and Test Procedures for Motor Vehicle Fuel Evaporative Emissions. California effective date12/8/10.

(l) Section 1978: Standards and Test Procedures for Vehicle Refueling Emissions. California effective date12/8/10.

(m) Section 2035: Purpose, Applicability and Definitions. California effective date 11/9/07.

(n) Section 2037: Defects Warranty Requirements for 1990 and Subsequent Model Year Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles and Motor Vehicle Engines Used in Such Vehicles. California effective date 11/9/07.

(o) Section 2038: Performance Warranty Requirements for 1990 and Subsequent Model Year Passenger Cars, Light-Duty Trucks and Medium-Duty Vehicles and Motor Vehicle Engines Used in Such. California effective date 11/9/07.

(p) Section 2039: Emission Control System Warranty Statement. California effective date 12/26/90.

(q) Section 2040: Vehicle Owner Obligations. California effective date 12/26/90.

(r) Section 2046: Defective Catalyst. California effective date 2/15/79.

(s) Section 2109: New Vehicle Recall Provisions. California effective date 12/30/83.

(t) Section 2111: Applicability. California effective date 12/8/10.

(u) Section 2112: Definitions. California effective date 11/15/03.

(v) Appendix A to Article 2.1. California effective date 8/16/2009.

(w) Section 2113: Initiation and Approval of Voluntary and Influenced Recalls. California effective date 1/26/95.

(x) Section 2114: Voluntary and Influenced Recall Plans. California effective date 11/27/99.

(z) Section 2115: Eligibility for Repair. California effective date 1/26/95.

(aa) Section 2116: Repair Label. California effective date 1/26/95.

(bb) Section 2117: Proof of Correction Certificate. California effective date 1/26/95.

(cc) Section 2118: Notification. California effective date 1/26/95.

(dd) Section 2119: Record keeping and Reporting Requirements. California effective date 11/27/99.

(ee) Section 2120: Other Requirements Not Waived. California effective date 1/26/95.

(ff) Section 2122: General Provisions. California effective date 12/8/2010.

(gg) Section 2123: Initiation and Notification of Ordered Emission-Related Recalls. California effective date 1/26/95.

(hh) Section 2124: Availability of Public Hearing. California effective date 1/26/95.

(ii) Section 2125: Ordered Recall Plan. California effective date 1/26/95.

(jj) Section 2126: Approval and Implementation of Recall Plan. California effective date 1/26/95.

(kk) Section 2127: Notification of Owners. California effective date 1/26/95.

(ll) Section 2128: Repair Label. California effective date 1/26/95.

(mm) Section 2129: Proof of Correction Certificate. California effective date 1/26/95.

(nn) Section 2130: Capture Rates and Alternative Measures. California effective date 11/27/99.

(oo) Section 2131: Preliminary Tests. California effective date 1/26/95.

(pp) Section 2132: Communication with Repair Personnel. California effective date 1/26/95.

(qq) Section 2133: Record keeping and Reporting Requirements. California effective date 1/26/95.

(rr) Section 2135: Extension of Time. California effective date 1/26/95.

(ss) Section 2141: General Provisions. California effective date 12/8/10.

(tt) Section 2142: Alternative Procedures. California effective date 2/23/90.

(uu) Section 2143: Failure Levels Triggering Recall. California effective date 11/27/99.

(vv) Section 2144: Emission Warranty Information Report. California effective date 11/27/99.

(ww) Section 2145: Field Information Report. California effective date 11/27/99.

(xx) Section 2146: Emissions Information Report. California effective date 11/27/99.

(yy) Section 2147: Demonstration of Compliance with Emission Standards. California effective date 8/16/09.

(zz) Section 2148: Evaluation of Need for Recall. California effective date 11/27/99.

(aaa) Section 2149: Notification of Subsequent Action. California effective date 2/23/90.

(bbb) Section 2235: Requirements. California effective date 9/17/91.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0060

Exemptions

The following vehicles are not subject to this division:

(1) Military tactical vehicles;

(2) Vehicles sold for registration and use in a state that is not subject to the California vehicle emission standards;

(3) Previously registered vehicles with more than seven thousand five hundred miles, provided that for vehicle dealers, the mileage at the time of sale is determined by the odometer statement when the dealer acquired the vehicle;

(4) Vehicles available only for rent to a final destination in a state that is not subject to the California vehicle emission standards;

(5) Vehicles purchased by a nonresident before establishing residency in the State of Oregon, regardless of the mileage on the vehicle;

(6) Vehicles purchased by Oregon residents while assigned to active government service outside the State of Oregon;

(7) Vehicles transferred from one person to another due to: death, inheritance, devise or bequest; divorce, dissolution, annulment or legal separation; merger or consolidation; bankruptcy; court judgment or decree; or possessory lien, seizure or foreclosure;

(8) Emergency vehicles; (9) A vehicle acquired by an Oregon resident to replace a vehicle registered to such resident that was stolen, damaged or failed beyond reasonable repair while out of state, provided that such replacement vehicle is acquired out of state when the previously-owned vehicle was either stolen, damaged, or failed beyond reasonable repair; and

(10) Custom and assembled vehicles that:

(a) Will be maintained for occasional transportation, exhibitions, club activities, parades, tours, testing of operation, repair, maintenance and similar uses; and

(b) Will not be used for general daily transportation.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0070

Fleet Average Non-Methane Organic Gas (NMOG) Exhaust Emission Requirements, Reporting, and Compliance.

(1) Fleet average requirement. Effective model year 2009 and each model year thereafter, each motor vehicle manufacturer’s NMOG fleet average emissions from passenger cars, light duty trucks and medium duty vehicles delivered for sale in Oregon must not exceed the Fleet Average NMOG Exhaust Emission Requirement set forth in CCR, Title 13, section 1961 California effective date 12/18/2010. Compliance will be based on the number of vehicles, subject to this regulation, delivered for sale in Oregon.

(2) Fleet average NMOG exhaust emission credits and debits. Effective model year 2009, each vehicle manufacturer may accrue NMOG emission credits and debits and use credits in accordance with the procedures in California Code of Regulations, Title 13, section 1961 California effective date 12/18/2010. Debits and credits accrued and used will be based on the number of vehicles, subject to this division, produced and delivered for sale by each manufacturer in Oregon.

(3) Reporting. Effective model year 2009, and for each model year thereafter, each manufacturer must report to DEQ by March 1 data that calculates the fleet average NMOG exhaust emissions for the model year just ended. The report must follow the procedures in CCR, Title 13, section 1961 California effective date 12/18/2010 and be in the same format used to report such information to the California Air Resources Board.

(4) Compliance with fleet average NMOG requirement. Effective model year 2012, if a report submitted by the manufacturer under subsection(3)(b) of this rule demonstrates that the manufacturer is not in compliance with the fleet average emission standard, the manufacturer must submit to DEQ within 60 days a Fleet Average Remediation Report. The Fleet Average Remediation Report must:

(a) Describe how the manufacturer intends to equalize any accrued debits, as required in CCR, Title 13, section 1961(c)(3) California effective date 12/18/2010;

(b) Identify all vehicle models delivered for sale in Oregon, their corresponding certification standards, and the percentage of each model delivered for sale in Oregon and California in relation to total fleet sales in the respective state; and

(c) Describe how the manufacturer plans to achieve compliance with the fleet average in future model years.

(5) For model years 2009 through 2011, manufacturers must submit the Fleet Average Remediation Report, if needed, to DEQ by March 1, 2012. If debits are accrued in all three years, one year of debits must be equalized by the end of the 2012 model year.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0090

ZEV Credit Bank and Reporting

(1) Beginning model year 2009, each intermediate volume and large volume manufacturer of ZEVs, ATPZEVs, and PZEVs may open an account in the ZEV Credit Bank operated by DEQ. (2) In order to generate and deposit credits for vehicles delivered for sale in Oregon during the 1999 through 2005 model years, a manufacturer must open an account with the ZEV Credit Bank and submit an appropriate Notice of Generation to DEQ on or before September 1, 2006.

(3) Manufacturers wishing to claim ZEV credits must use the format and process contained in CARB’s Manufacturer’s Advisory Correspondence (MAC) 2011-01 for reporting and tracking ZEV deliveries and placements, unless this division specifies different requirements. DEQ will follow CARB’s procedures contained in that MAC for tracking and recording ZEV sales and credits.

(4) Except as provided in section (2) of this rule, annually each manufacturer must submit to DEQ a Notice of Credit Generation or Notice of Credit Transfer to or from another manufacturer. Credits generated or acquired must be reported to DEQ on or before September 1 following the close of the model year in which the qualifying vehicle was produced and delivered for sale in Oregon.

(5) To deposit credits into the ZEV Credit Bank, a manufacturer must submit a Notice of Credit Generation to DEQ. The Notice of Generation must include the following:

(a) For ZEVs delivered for sale in Oregon:

(A) Manufacturer’s ZEV Credit Bank account identifier;

(B) Model year of vehicle qualifying for credit;

(C) CARB Executive Order number;

(D) ZEV Tier type (NEV, 0, I, II, III for California, III for Section 177 states);

(E) Vehicle identification number; and

(F) Date the vehicle was delivered for sale in Oregon.

(b) For ZEVs placed in service in Oregon, all information listed under subsection (6)(a) of this rule, plus the following:

(A) Date the vehicle was placed in service, and

(B) Whether the vehicle was placed in service with an option to purchase or lease the vehicle.

(c) For ATPZEVs and PZEVs delivered for sale in Oregon:

(A) Vehicle certification class (ATPZEV or PZEV);

(B) Manufacturer’s ZEV Credit Bank account identification;

(C) Model year of vehicle(s);

(D) For ATPZEVs, the Federal test group;

(E) The CARB Executive Order number;

(F) Number of vehicles delivered; and

(6) The number of the credits generated and deposited for each qualifying vehicle must be the number of qualifying vehicles multiplied by the applicable multiplier specified in CCR, Title 13, section 1962 California effective date 2/13/2010, except the multiplier applied to vehicles produced and delivered for sale in Oregon from January 1, 1999 to January 13, 2004 will be the highest applicable multiplier used by the CARB for the period January 1, 1999 to January 13, 2004.

(7) A vehicle equivalent credit does not constitute or convey a property right.

(8) A manufacturer with an account in the ZEV Credit Bank may acquire credits from another manufacturer with an account in the ZEV Credit Bank. However, if the credits are to be used for future compliance with the ZEV sales requirement at CCR Title 13, section 1962.1 California effective date 2/13/2010, the transaction must be recorded in the ZEV Credit Bank and certified by both parties to the transaction.

(9) A manufacturer may deposit into its account in the ZEV Credit Bank a number of credits equal to its California credit balance at the beginning of the 2009 model year. The transferred credit balance will be multiplied by the number of new motor vehicles registered in Oregon, and divided by the number of new motor vehicles registered in California. The proportion of new motor vehicles in Oregon and California will be determined by the average number of vehicles registered in model years 2003 through 2005, or by the average number of vehicles registered in model year 2009. The deposit may be made only after all credit obligations for model years 2008 and earlier have been satisfied in California.

(10) Each manufacturer with a ZEV Credit Bank account under this rule must report to the Department the following information:

(a) By May 1, 2009, the total number of PC and LDT1 vehicles produced and delivered for sale in Oregon and California for 2003 through 2005 model years; or

(b) By May 1, 2009, the total projected number of PC and LDT1 vehicles to be produced and delivered for sale in Oregon and California during model year 2009 and, by March 1, 2010, the actual number of 2009 model year PC and LDT1 vehicles produced and delivered for sale in Oregon and California; and

(c) By May 1, 2009, provide the Department with the total number of banked California credits after all 2008 model year and earlier obligations have been met.

(11) A manufacturer electing to deposit credits under section (9) of this rule must offer for sale in Oregon in model years 2009 through 2011 any PZEV, ATPZEV or ZEV, except Type III ZEVs, that it offers for sale in California during the same period.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0110

Additional Reporting Requirements

(1) The manufacturer must submit to DEQ one copy of the California Executive Order and Certificate of Conformity for certification of new motor vehicles for each engine family to be sold in the State of Oregon within thirty (30) days of DEQ’s. If such reports are available electronically, the manufacturer must send the record in an electronic format acceptable to the director or the director’s designee.

 (2) To determine compliance with this division, DEQ may require any vehicle manufacturer to submit any documentation DEQ deems necessary to the effective administration and enforcement of this division, including all certification materials submitted to CARB.

(3) Upon request, dealers must report to DEQ the sale of each previously-titled light-duty and medium-duty motor vehicle subject to this division. The report must include the following information and be submitted in a manner DEQ prescribes:

(a) The dealer’s name and address;

(b) Vehicle description including make and model year;

(c) The vehicle identification number;

(d) Date of sale;

(e) The California or federal emission category to which the vehicle is certified; and

(f) Evidence of any applicable exemption.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0120

Warranty Requirements

(1) For all 2009 and subsequent model year vehicles subject to the provisions of this division, each manufacturer must provide, to the ultimate purchaser and each subsequent purchaser, a warranty that complies with the requirements contained in CCR, Title 13, sections 2035 through 2038, 2040, and 2046.

(2) The 15-year or 150,000-mile extended warranty specified in CCR, Title 13, section 1962.1(c)(2)(D) for PZEVs is not included as a requirement of this rule or OAR 340-257-0050, provided that PZEVs delivered for sale to Oregon are equipped with the same quality components as PZEVs supplied to areas where the full 15-year or 150,000-mile warranty remains in effect. The provisions of this section do not amend the requirements of CCR, Title 13, section 1962.1(c)(2)(D) that indicate the warranty period for a zero emission energy storage device used for traction power will be 10 years or 150,000 miles, whichever occurs first.

(3) For all 2009 and subsequent model year vehicles subject to the provisions of this division, each manufacturer must include the emission control system warranty statement that complies with the requirements in CCR, Title 13, section 2039. Manufacturers may modify this statement as necessary to inform Oregon vehicle owners of the warranty’s applicability. The manufacturer must provide a telephone number that Oregon consumers can use to learn answers to warranty questions.

(4) Upon the Department’s request, any manufacturer must submit to the Department Failure of Emission-Related Components reports as defined in CCR, Title 13, section 2144, for vehicles subject to this regulation. For purposes of compliance with this requirement, manufacturers may submit copies of the Failure of Emission-Related Components reports that are submitted to the California Air Resources Board in lieu of submitting reports for vehicles subject to this division.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.020, 468A.025 & 468A.360

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

340-257-0140

Permits and Fees

(1) “Indirect source” as defined in OAR 340-254-0030(6) includes a large or intermediate volume manufacturer for purposes of OAR 340-0254-0010. Such sources are subject to permit and fee requirements as specified in section (2) of this rule and not the provisions in OAR 340-254-0040 to 340-254-0080.

(2) Beginning January 1, 2007, each large-volume or intermediate-volume vehicle manufacturer offering light duty or medium duty vehicles for sale in Oregon must have a Motor Vehicle Indirect Source permit issued by DEQ. Each Motor Vehicle Indirect Source permit will be issued for a period of up to 10 years and is subject to an annual fee.

(3) Each large-volume and intermediate-volume manufacturer must report to DEQ the number of light and medium-duty vehicles it delivered for sale in Oregon during the previous model year. These reports must be submitted to DEQ by March 1 of each year except as provided in section (7) of this rule.

(4) DEQ will assess annual permit fees for each large and intermediate-volume manufacturer for periods beginning July 1 and ending June 30 of the subsequent year except as provided in section (7) of this rule.

(5) DEQ will assess annual permit fees by apportioning a total of $200,000 among all Motor Vehicle Indirect Source Permit holders according to each permit holder’s reported market share for the previous model year except as provided in section (7) of this rule. In the event that not all required data are reported, DEQ will estimate the total Oregon market share for the applicable year and the resulting fees according to means the Department judges to be appropriate.

(6) Within 60 days after reports required by this rule are due, DEQ will notify each large and intermediate-volume manufacturer of the fee required for the next permit period. Within 30 days of receiving notice of the required permit fee, each permit holder must remit the specified amount payable to the Oregon Department of Environmental Quality. Motor Vehicle Indirect Source permits for which permit fees are not current will be deemed to have lapsed and will no longer be in effect.

(7) The initial report required by section (3) of this rule must be submitted by October 1, 2006. The initial period for which a Motor Vehicle Indirect Source Permit is required begins January 1, 2007 and ends June 30 of the same year. Total permit fees for the initial period will be $200,000.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 468.065, 468A.010, 468A.015, 468A.040.

Stats. Implemented: ORS 468.020

Hist.: DEQ 10-2005(Temp), f. 12-27-05, cert. ef. 1-1-06 thru 6-30-06; DEQ 6-2006, f. & cert. ef. 6-29-06; DEQ 6-2011, f. & cert. ef. 4-29-11

Notes
1.) This online version of the OREGON BULLETIN is provided for convenience of reference and enhanced access. The official, record copy of this publication is contained in the original Administrative Orders and Rulemaking Notices filed with the Secretary of State, Archives Division. Discrepancies, if any, are satisfied in favor of the original versions. Use the OAR Revision Cumulative Index found in the Oregon Bulletin to access a numerical list of rulemaking actions after November 15, 2010.

2.) Copyright 2011 Oregon Secretary of State: Terms and Conditions of Use

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