Oregon Bulletin

December 1, 2013

Oregon Board of Dentistry, Chapter 818

Rule Caption: Amends Rules regarding Practice, infection control guidelines, HPSP, Sedation Permit and radiologic proficiency.

Adm. Order No.: OBD 3-2013

Filed with Sec. of State: 10-24-2013

Certified to be Effective: 1-1-14

Notice Publication Date: 10-1-2013

Rules Amended: 818-012-0005, 818-012-0040, 818-013-0001, 818-013-0005, 818-026-0060, 818-042-0060

Subject: The Board is amending 818-012-0005 to clarify the training a dentist needs to utilize Botulinum Toxin Type A.

   The Board is amending 818-012-0040 to clarify the record keeping requirements for sterilization equipment.

   The Board is amending 818-013-0001 to delete language from the rule.

   The Board is amending 818-013-0005 to delete language from the rule.

   The Board is amending 818-026-0060 to clarify the rule.

   The Board is amending 818-042-0060 to add digital radiographs as an option for proficiency.

Rules Coordinator: Stephen Prisby—(971) 673-3200


Scope of Practice

(1) No dentist may perform any of the procedures listed below:

(a) Rhinoplasty;

(b) Blepharoplasty;

(c) Rhydidectomy;

(d) Submental liposuction;

(e) Laser resurfacing;

(f) Browlift, either open or endoscopic technique;

(g) Platysmal muscle plication;

(h) Otoplasty;

(i) Dermabrasion;

(j) Lip augmentation;

(k) Hair transplantation, not as an isolated procedure for male pattern baldness; and

(l) Harvesting bone extra orally for dental procedures, including oral and maxillofacial procedures.

(2) Unless the dentist:

(a) Has successfully completed a residency in Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery accredited by the American Dental Association, Commission on Dental Accreditation (CODA), and

(b) Has successfully completed a clinical fellowship, of at least one continuous year in duration, in esthetic (cosmetic) surgery recognized by the American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons or by the American Dental Association Commission on Dental Accreditation, or

(c) Holds privileges either:

(A) Issued by a credentialing committee of a hospital accredited by the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) to perform these procedures in a hospital setting; or

(B) Issued by a credentialing committee for an ambulatory surgical center licensed by the State of Oregon and accredited by either the JCAHO or the American Association for Ambulatory Health Care (AAAHC).

(3) A dentist may utilize Botulinum Toxin Type A to treat a condition that is within the scope of the practice of dentistry after completing a minimum of 16 hours in a hands on clinical course(s) in which the provider is approved by the Academy of General Dentistry Program Approval for Continuing Education (AGD PACE) or by the American Dental Association Continuing Education Recognition Program (ADA CERP).

Stat. Auth.: ORS 679 & 680

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.010(2), 679.140(1)(c), 679.140(2), 679.170(6) & 680.100

Hist.: OBD 6-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-8-01; OBD 1-2013, f. 5-15-13, cert. ef. 7-1-13; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14


Infection Control Guidelines

In determining what constitutes unacceptable patient care with respect to infection control, the Board may consider current infection control guidelines such as those of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention and the American Dental Association. Additionally, licensees must comply with the following requirements:

(1) Disposable gloves shall be worn whenever placing fingers into the mouth of a patient or when handling blood or saliva contaminated instruments or equipment. Appropriate hand hygiene shall be performed prior to gloving.

(2) Masks and protective eyewear or chin-length shields shall be worn by licensees and other dental care workers when spattering of blood or other body fluids is likely.

(3) Between each patient use, instruments or other equipment that come in contact with body fluids shall be sterilized.

(4) Heat sterilizing devices shall be tested for proper function on a weekly basis by means of a biological monitoring system that indicates micro-organisms kill. Testing results shall be retained by the licensee for the current calendar year and the two preceding calendar years.

(5) Environmental surfaces that are contaminated by blood or saliva shall be disinfected with a chemical germicide which is mycobactericidal at use.

(6) Impervious backed paper, aluminum foil, or plastic wrap may be used to cover surfaces that may be contaminated by blood or saliva and are difficult or impossible to disinfect. The cover shall be replaced between patients.

(7) All contaminated wastes and sharps shall be disposed of according to any governmental requirements.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 679.120, 679.250(7), 680.075 & 680.150

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.140, 679.140(4) & 680.100

Hist.: DE 1-1988, f. 12-28-88, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 1-1989, f. 1-27-89, cert. ef. 2-1-89; DE 2-1992, f. & cert. ef. 6-24-92; OBD 1-2004, f. 5-27-04, cert. ef. 6-1-04; OBD 1-2008, f. 11-10-08, cert. ef. 12-1-08; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14



For the purpose of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Confidential” means that, to the highest degree possible, the identities of the licensees investigated for alleged addiction to, dependence upon, or abuse of alcohol, drugs, and mind altering substances, or mental health disorders, and who have a diagnosed substance abuse disorder or mental health disorder, will be kept confidential by the Board and not be a matter of public record.

(2) “Diagnosis” means the principal mental health or substance use diagnosis listed in the DSM. The diagnosis is determined through the evaluation and any examinations, tests, or consultations suggested by the evaluation, and is the medically appropriate reason for services.

(3) “Direct Observe” means that a collection taker is in the restroom with donor and observes the providing of the sample throughout the entire process.

(4) “Diversion Coordinator” means the individual(s) authorized by the Board and the Executive Director to know the identities of the licensees who are candidates for or who are enrolled in HPSP.

(5) “Division” means the Oregon Health Authority, Addictions and Mental Health Division.

(6) “DSM” means the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American Psychiatric Association.

(7) “Evaluation” means the process a Board approved, independent evaluator uses to diagnose the licensee’s symptoms and to recommend treatment options for the licensee.

(8) “Health Professionals’ Services Program” (HPSP) means the consolidated, statewide health professionals program for licensees diagnosed with a substance use disorder, a mental health disorder, or both types of disorders, as established by ORS 676.190.

(9) “Independent evaluator” means a Board approved individual or entity qualified to evaluate, diagnose, and recommend treatment regimens for substance abuse disorders, mental health disorders, or co-occurring disorders.

(10) “Mental health disorder” means a clinically significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual and that is associated with present distress or disability or with a significantly increased risk of suffering death, pain, disability, or an important loss of freedom that is identified in the DSM. “Mental health disorder” includes gambling disorders.

(11) “Monitoring agreement” means an individualized agreement between a licensee and the HPSP vendor that meets the requirements for a diversion agreement set by ORS 676.190.

(12) “Monitoring Entity” means an independent third-party that monitors licensees’ program enrollment statuses and monitoring agreement compliance.

(13) “Non-disciplinary” means the Board will not take disciplinary action or enter disciplinary orders against a licensee who agrees to enter into the HPSP and remains compliant with that program.

(14) “Non-identifying” means a system where the licensee is referred to by number rather than name and the licensee’s identity remains confidential to the Board.

(15) “Program” means the process whereby allegations of addiction to, dependence upon, or abuse of alcohol, drugs, or mind altering substances or mental health disorders are investigated, evaluated, and reported to the Board for action.

(16) “Substance Use Disorders” means disorders related to the taking of a drug of abuse including alcohol, to the side effects of a medication, and to a toxin exposure. The disorders include substance use disorders such as substance dependence and substance abuse, and substance-induced disorders, including substance intoxication, withdrawal, delirium, and dementia, as well as substance induced psychotic disorder, mood disorder, etc., as defined in DSM criteria.

(17) “Substantial non-compliance” means that a licensee is in violation of the terms of his or her monitoring agreement in a way that gives rise to concerns about the licensee’s ability or willingness to participate in the program. Substantial non-compliance and non-compliance include, but are not limited to, the factors listed in ORS 676.190(1)(f). Conduct that occurred before a licensee entered into a monitoring agreement does not violate the terms of that monitoring agreement.

(18) “Successful completion” means the licensee has complied with the licensee’s monitoring agreement to the satisfaction of the Board.

(19) “Toxicology testing” means urine testing or alternative chemical monitoring including, but not limited to blood, saliva, or breath as conducted by a laboratory certified, accredited or licensed and approved for toxicology testing.

(20) “Treatment” means the planned, specific, individualized health and behavioral-health procedures, activities, services and supports that a treatment provider uses to remediate symptoms of a substance use disorder, mental health disorder or both types of disorders.

(21) “Vendor” means the entity that has contracted with the Division to conduct the program.

(22) “Voluntary” means that the Board cannot compel a licensee to enter the HPSP.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 676, 679 & 680

Stats. Implemented:ORS 676.185, 676.190, 676.195, 676.200 & 676.140(e)

Hist.: OBD 2-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-6-10 thru 2-1-11; OBD 1-2011, f. 1-11-11, cert. ef. 2-1-11; OBD 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-11; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14


Participation in Health Professionals’ Services Program

(1) Effective July 1, 2010, the Board participates in the Health Professionals’ Services Program (HPSP).

(a) The Board establishes procedures to process cases of licensees preparatory to transfer to HPSP.

(b) The procedures will be confidential, non-disciplinary, and voluntary.

(c) The Executive Director will have overall management responsibilities for the procedures. The Executive Director will designate Board staff to serve as Diversion Coordinator(s) who will manage and conduct investigations and report to the Board.

(d) The Diversion Coordinator(s) will investigate information related to addiction to, dependence upon, or abuse of alcohol, drugs, or mind altering substances or mental health disorders, by licensees and provide licensees with resources for evaluations, if appropriate.

(2) Only licensees of the Board who meet the referral criteria may be referred by the Board to the HPSP.

(a) The Board may refer a licensee to the HPSP in lieu of public discipline.

(b) In the event a licensee declines to submit to an evaluation or declines referral to HPSP, the Diversion Coordinator(s) will present the matter to the Board for decision and the Board’s action may jeopardize the confidential nature of licensee’s status as a candidate for, or enrollment in, HPSP.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 676, 679 & 680

Stats. Implemented: ORS 676.185, 676.190, 676.195, 676.200 & 676.140(e)

Hist.: OBD 2-2010(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 8-6-10 thru 2-1-11; OBD 1-2011, f. 1-11-11, cert. ef. 2-1-11; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14


Moderate Sedation Permit

Moderate sedation, minimal sedation, and nitrous oxide sedation.

(1) The Board shall issue or renew a Moderate Sedation Permit to an applicant who:

(a) Is a licensed dentist in Oregon;

(b) Either holds a current Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) or Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) certificate, whichever is appropriate for the patient being sedated, or successfully completes the American Dental Association’s course “Recognition and Management of Complications during Minimal and Moderate Sedation” at least every two years; and

(c) Satisfies one of the following criteria:

(A) Completion of a comprehensive training program in enteral and/or parenteral sedation that satisfies the requirements described in Part V of the ADA Guidelines for Teaching Pain Control and Sedation to Dentists and Dental Students (2007) at the time training was commenced.

(i) Enteral Moderate Sedation requires a minimum of 24 hours of instruction plus management of at least 10 dental patient experiences by the enteral and/or enteral-nitrous oxide/oxygen route.

(ii) Parenteral Moderate Sedation requires a minimum of 60 hours of instruction plus management of at least 20 dental patients by the intravenous route.

(B) Completion of an ADA accredited postdoctoral training program (e.g., general practice residency) which affords comprehensive and appropriate training necessary to administer and manage parenteral sedation, commensurate with these Guidelines.

(C) In lieu of these requirements, the Board may accept equivalent training or experience in moderate sedation anesthesia.

(2) The following facilities, equipment and drugs shall be on site and available for immediate use during the procedures and during recovery:

(a) An operating room large enough to adequately accommodate the patient on an operating table or in an operating chair and to allow an operating team of at least two individuals to freely move about the patient;

(b) An operating table or chair which permits the patient to be positioned so the operating team can maintain the patient’s airway, quickly alter the patient’s position in an emergency, and provide a firm platform for the administration of basic life support;

(c) A lighting system which permits evaluation of the patient’s skin and mucosal color and a backup lighting system of sufficient intensity to permit completion of any operation underway in the event of a general power failure;

(d) Suction equipment which permits aspiration of the oral and pharyngeal cavities and a backup suction device which will function in the event of a general power failure;

(e) An oxygen delivery system with adequate full face mask and appropriate connectors that is capable of delivering high flow oxygen to the patient under positive pressure, together with an adequate backup system;

(f) A nitrous oxide delivery system with a fail-safe mechanism that will insure appropriate continuous oxygen delivery and a scavenger system;

(g) A recovery area that has available oxygen, adequate lighting, suction and electrical outlets. The recovery area can be the operating room;

(h) Sphygmomanometer, precordial/pretracheal stethoscope, capnograph, pulse oximeter, oral and nasopharyngeal airways, larynageal mask airways, intravenous fluid administration equipment, automated external defibrillator (AED); and

(i) Emergency drugs including, but not limited to: pharmacologic antagonists appropriate to the drugs used, vasopressors, corticosteroids, bronchodilators, antihistamines, antihypertensives and anticonvulsants.

(3) No permit holder shall have more than one person under moderate sedation, minimal sedation, or nitrous oxide sedation at the same time.

(4) During the administration of moderate sedation, and at all times while the patient is under moderate sedation, an anesthesia monitor, and one other person holding a Health Care Provider BLS/CPR level certificate or its equivalent, shall be present in the operatory, in addition to the dentist performing the dental procedures.

(5) Before inducing moderate sedation, a dentist who induces moderate sedation shall:

(a) Evaluate the patient and document, using the American Society of Anesthesiologists Patient Physical Status Classifications, that the patient is an appropriate candidate for moderate sedation;

(b) Give written preoperative and postoperative instructions to the patient or, when appropriate due to age or psychological status of the patient, the patient’s guardian; and

(c) Obtain written informed consent from the patient or patient’s guardian for the anesthesia.

(6) A patient under moderate sedation shall be visually monitored at all times, including the recovery phase. The dentist or anesthesia monitor shall monitor and record the patient’s condition.

(7) The patient shall be monitored as follows:

(a) Patients must have continuous monitoring using pulse oximetry and End-tidal CO2 monitors. The patient’s blood pressure, heart rate, and respiration shall be recorded at regular intervals but at least every 15 minutes, and these recordings shall be documented in the patient record. The record must also include documentation of preoperative and postoperative vital signs, all medications administered with dosages, time intervals and route of administration. If this information cannot be obtained, the reasons shall be documented in the patient’s record. A patient under moderate sedation shall be continuously monitored;

(b) During the recovery phase, the patient must be monitored by an individual trained to monitor patients recovering from moderate sedation.

(8) A dentist shall not release a patient who has undergone moderate sedation except to the care of a responsible third party.

(9) The dentist shall assess the patient’s responsiveness using preoperative values as normal guidelines and discharge the patient only when the following criteria are met:

(a) Vital signs including blood pressure, pulse rate and respiratory rate are stable;

(b) The patient is alert and oriented to person, place and time as appropriate to age and preoperative psychological status;

(c) The patient can talk and respond coherently to verbal questioning;

(d) The patient can sit up unaided;

(e) The patient can ambulate with minimal assistance; and

(f) The patient does not have uncontrollable nausea or vomiting and has minimal dizziness.

(10) A discharge entry shall be made by the dentist in the patient’s record indicating the patient’s condition upon discharge and the name of the responsible party to whom the patient was discharged.

(11) After adequate training, an assistant, when directed by a dentist, may introduce additional anesthetic agents to an infusion line under the direct visual supervision of a dentist.

(12) Permit renewal. In order to renew a Moderate Sedation Permit, the permit holder must provide documentation of having current ACLS or PALS certification or current certification of successful completion of the American Dental Association’s course “Recognition and Management of Complications during Minimal and Moderate Sedation” and must complete 14 hours of continuing education in one or more of the following areas every two years: sedation, physical evaluation, medical emergencies, monitoring and the use of monitoring equipment, or pharmacology of drugs and agents used in sedation. Training taken to maintain current ACLS or PALS certification or successful completion of the American Dental Association’s course “Recognition and Management of Complications during Minimal and Moderate Sedation” may be counted toward this requirement. Continuing education hours may be counted toward fulfilling the continuing education requirement set forth in OAR 818-021-0060.

[Publications: Publications referenced are available from the agency.]

Stat. Auth.: ORS 679

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.250(7) & 679.250(10)

Hist.: OBD 2-1998, f. 7-13-98, cert. ef. 10-1-98; OBD 1-1999, f. 2-26-99, cert. ef. 3-1-99; OBD 6-1999, f. 6-25-99, cert. ef. 7-1-99; Administrative correction 8-12-99; OBD 2-2000(Temp), f. 5-22-00, cert. ef. 5-22-00 thru 11-18-00; OBD 2-2001, f. & cert. ef. 1-8-01; OBD 3-2003, f. 9-15-03, cert. ef. 10-1-03; OBD 1-2005, f. 1-28-05, cert. ef. 2-1-05; OBD 2-2005, f. 1-31-05, cert. ef. 2-1-05; OBD 1-2010, f. 6-22-10, cert. ef. 7-1-10; OBD 2-2011(Temp), f. 5-9-11, cert. ef. 6-1-11 thru 1-27-11; OBD 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-11; OBD 1-2013, f. 5-15-13, cert. ef. 7-1-13; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14


Certification — Radiologic Proficiency

(1) The Board may certify a dental assistant in radiologic proficiency by credential in accordance with OAR 818-042-0120, or if the assistant:

(2) Submits an application on a form approved by the Board, pays the application fee and:

(a) Completes a course of instruction in a program approved by the Oregon Health Authority, Oregon Public Health Division, Office of Environmental Public Health, Radiation Protection Services, or the Oregon Board of Dentistry, in accordance with OAR 333-106-0055 or submits evidence that RPS recognizes that the equivalent training has been successfully completed;

(b) Passes the written Dental Radiation Health and Safety Examination administered by the Dental Assisting National Board, Inc. (DANB), or comparable exam administered by any other testing entity authorized by the Board, or other comparable requirements approved by the Oregon Board of Dentistry; and

(c) Passes a clinical examination approved by the Board and graded by the Dental Assisting National Board, Inc. (DANB), or any other testing entity authorized by the Board, consisting of exposing, developing and mounting a full mouth series of radiographs or by exposing and mounting a digital full mouth series of radiographic images (14 to 18 periapical and 4 bitewing radiographic images) within one hour and under the supervision of a person permitted to take radiographs in Oregon. No portion of the clinical examination may be completed in advance; a maximum of three retakes is permitted (i.e., three individual radiographic exposures, not three full mouth series); only the applicant may determine the necessity of retakes. The radiographic images should be acquired on an adult patient with at least 24 fully erupted teeth. The full mouth series must be submitted for grading within six months after it is taken.

Stat. Auth.: ORS 679

Stats. Implemented: ORS 679.020, 679.025 & 679.250

Hist.: OBD 9-1999, f. 8-10-99, cert. ef. 1-1-00; OBD 2-2003, f. 7-14-03 cert. ef. 7-18-03; OBD 4-2004, f. 11-23-04 cert. ef. 12-1-04; OBD 3-2005, f. 10-26-05, cert. ef. 11-1-05; OBD 3-2007, f. & cert. ef. 11-30-07; OBD 4-2011, f. & cert. ef. 11-15-11; OBD 3-2013, f. 10-24-13, cert. ef. 1-1-14

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