DIVISION 15
GENERAL ADMINISTRATION
332-015-0000
Definitions
The following definitions apply as used in OAR 332-015-0000 through 332-030-0030.
(1) "Agency" means the Health Licensing Office. The agency is responsible for the budget, personnel, performance-based outcomes, consumer protection, fee collection, mediation, complaint resolution, discipline, rulemaking and record keeping.
(2) "Antepartum" means the period of time before the onset of labor with reference to the mother.
(3) "Birth assistant" means anyone who provides support or hands on aid to the primary birth attendant, or who functions under the supervision of a primary birth attendant, and has been trained in intrapartum emergency skills of direct entry midwifery.
(4) "Board" means, pursuant to ORS 687.470, the entity that advises the agency on matters relating to the practice of direct entry midwifery, and determines practice standards, education and training, and provides consultation to the agency on all disciplinary issues in accordance with ORS 687.420 to 687.495.
(5) "Client records" means written documentation, including licensee signatures or initials, of midwifery care provided to a client, including but not limited to demographic information, medical history, prenatal care, diagnostic studies and laboratory findings, labor, birth, and immediate postnatal care, maternal and infant care through postnatal weeks six to eight, emergency transport plan, informed consent documentation, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) releases.
(6) "Consultation" means a dialogue for the purpose of obtaining information or advice with an Oregon licensed health care provider, with hospital privileges if appropriate. Consultation includes but is not limited to the following objectives:
(a) Confirmation of a diagnosis;
(b) Recommendation regarding management of the medical problem or condition;
(c) Transfer of total or partial care of the patient when necessary.
(7) "Continuing education" means ongoing training or instruction by which midwives shall keep current regarding issues relevant to the provision of maternal, newborn and well women care.
(8) "Director" means the individual who is responsible for the performance of the agency as defined in ORS 676.610. The director appoints all subordinate officers and employees to carry out the duties of the agency.
(9) "Emergency skills of midwifery" means the provision of vital sign assessment, CPR, infant resuscitation, maternal hemorrhage control, charting, fetal monitoring, treatment of shock, essentials of maternal and infant transport procedures, and the setup of necessary equipment.
(10) "Emergency transport" means the mechanism by which a mother or newborn would be moved to a location where appropriate care could be provided. Such means may include ambulance or private vehicle.
(11) "Employed by" means other than independent contractor relationship and does not require remuneration.
(12) "Endorsement" means the authorization conferred on a licensed direct entry midwife for access to and administration of specific legend drugs and devices, upon completion of Board prescribed continuing education in accordance with ORS 687.493.
(13) "Equivalent" means substantially comparable but not identical, covering the same subject matter.
(14) "Family planning" means advice, counseling and provision of various contraceptive methods.
(15) "Fetal distress" is a condition in which the fetus demonstrates progressive and irresolvable clinical signs of compromise, such signs to include: abnormal fetal movement; loss of heart tone variability; non-reassuring fetal heart rate deceleration patterns such as late decelerations; non-reassuring changes in fetal heart baseline rate.
(16) "Health Licensing Office" means the agency.
(17) "Infectious Process" is a condition in which an individual demonstrates a combination of clinical signs of pathogenic infection. In the mother, such signs would include: weak, thready, elevated pulse, temperature over 101 degrees Fahrenheit taken orally, foul vaginal odor, foul odor of amniotic fluid, localized tenderness upon palpation, pain in the involved area (uterus, perineum, etc), malaise, headache, if pregnant fetal tachycardia. In the newborn infant, such signs would include: temperature instability with axillary temperatures of greater than 100 degrees Fahrenheit or less than 95.6 degrees Fahrenheit being particularly concerning, lethargy, poor feeding, respiratory distress, hypotonia or hypertonia, enlarged liver and/or spleen, skin lesions such as rashes or blisters, pallor, poor capillary refill, foul odor of placenta, amniotic fluid or baby.
(18) "Informed Consent" means the consent obtained following a thorough and easily understood explanation to the patient, or patient's guardian, of the proposed procedures, any available alternative procedures and any risks associated with the procedures. Following the explanation, the licensee shall ask the patient, or the patient's guardian, if there are any questions. The licensee shall provide thorough and easily understood answers to all questions asked and will document the discussion.
(19) "Intrapartum" means the period of time from the onset of labor through the birth of the baby.
(20) "License" means the document authorizing the holder to use the title Licensed Direct Entry Midwifery.
(21) "Licensed Direct Entry Midwife" means a person who meets the minimum qualifications for licensure under ORS 687.420 and is authorized by the Board to supervise the conduct of labor and childbirth; advise the parent as to the progress of the childbirth; render prenatal, intrapartum and postpartum care, and who meets the qualifications for reimbursement under medical assistance programs according to 687.415.
(22) "Maternal exhaustion" means a condition in which the mother demonstrates a combination of clinical signs of compromise, such signs would include: elevated pulse over 100, extreme fatigue, dehydration, hypoglycemia, concentrated urine, ketonuria of 3 or greater, temperature over 101 degree Fahrenheit.
(23) "MANA" means the Midwives Alliance of North America.
(24) "MEAC" means the Midwifery Education and Accrediting Council.
(25) "Midwife disclosure statement" means the written provision of information to clients which shall include but not be limited to: philosophy of care, midwifery training and education, clinical experience, services provided to clients, types of emergency medications and equipment used, fees for services including payment arrangements, responsibilities of the mother and her family, malpractice insurance coverage, and the address of the State Board of Direct Entry Midwifery.
(26) "NARM" means the North American Registry of Midwives.
(27) "Newborn examination" means the assessment of newborn well-being during the first hours of life.
(28) "Official transcript" means an original document certified by a school or educational institution, on a form approved by the Department of Education or regulating authority, delivered from the school to the agency by mail or courier, which includes:
(a) School and location;
(b) Student's name, address and date of birth;
(c) Enrollment and completion or termination dates;
(d) Hours and types of course work;
(e) Final examination scores;
(f) School seal or stamp;
(g) Signature of authorized school representative or registrar.
(29) "Pathology in childbirth" means the variations which significantly compromise the well being of mother, fetus, or newborn.
(30) "Peer review" means the discussion of cases with other care providers and students for the purpose of obtaining and providing suggestions regarding care.
(31) "Postpartum" means the period of time after the birth of the baby.
(32) "Practice" means the clinical procedures used in the conduct of direct entry midwifery.
(33) "Prenatal" means the encompassing period of time from conception to the onset of labor.
(34)"Primary birth attendant" means the midwife who assumes direct responsibility for the direct entry midwife/client relationship.
(35) "Re-Activated license" is a status of a person's license when the person was previously licensed, but application was not made for renewal prior to the expiration of the previous license, but now has met qualifications for and has been re-issued a license.
(36) "Risk assessment" means the analysis of health compromising conditions relevant to pregnancy, birth and the postpartum period based on information gathered through interview, clinical examination and historical data. Risk categories are identified as follows:
(a) "Absolute Risk" means the conditions or clinical situations whereby a client presents an irresolvable obstetrical or neonatal risk which would preclude being an acceptable candidate for an out of hospital birth.
(b) "Non-Absolute risk" is a condition or clinical situation which places a client at increased obstetric or neonatal risk, but does not automatically exclude a client from out-of-hospital birth.
(c) "Non-Absolute risk factor consultation" is the consultation required when a client presents with a non-absolute risk factor(s). This consultation shall be with at least one Oregon licensed health care provider as defined in section (6) of this rule.
(37) "Sharps" means items which includes needles, IV tubing with needles attached, scalpel blades, lancets, glass tubes that could be broken during handling and syringes that have been removed from their original sterile containers.
(38) "Valid license" means a license that is not expired, suspended or revoked.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 687.485
Stats. Implemented: ORS 183.450(7) & 687.485
Hist.: DEM 1-1993(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-22-93; DEM
1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 6-15-94; DEM 1-1998, f. 2-27-98, cert. ef.
3-1-98; DEM 1-1999(Temp), f. 9-1-99, cert. ef. 9-9-99 thru 2-29-00;
DEM 2-1999, f. 12-17-99, cert. ef. 12-20-99; DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02
cert. ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert. ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0010
Standards for Qualifications for Licensure of Direct Entry Midwives
The agency shall review each applicant's qualifications for licensure according to ORS 687.420 to determine whether sufficient knowledge in the practice of direct entry midwifery has been attained. Education consists of three components: theoretical knowledge base, skill instruction, and practical experience that are demonstrable in a clinical setting. Applicants must meet the following criteria:
(1) Education as determined by the Board in accordance with OAR 332-015-0040.
(2) Pursuant to ORS 687.420, participation in 25 assisted deliveries, 25 deliveries for which the midwife was the primary birth attendant, 100 prenatal care visits, 25 newborn examinations, and 40 postnatal examinations. Of these 50 births, at least 25 deliveries must have taken place in an out-of-hospital setting. The applicant must have provided continuity care for at least ten of the primary birth attendant deliveries, including four prenatal visits, one newborn examination and one postpartum exam.
(3) Current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation for adults and newborns, which includes newborn bag and mask ventilation, and required education in approved legend drugs and devices as provided in OAR 332-015-0070 to qualify for the license endorsement.
(4) A written plan for emergency transport; and
(5) Successful passage of Board approved examination(s) as set forth in OAR 332-015-0050.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, 687.420 & 687.430
Stats. Implemented: ORS 183, 687.420 & 687.430
Hist.: DEM 1-1993(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 12-22-93; DEM
1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 6-15-94; DEM 1-1998, f. 2-27-98, cert. ef.
3-1-98; DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02 cert. ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f.
6-29-04, cert. ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0030
Application Requirements
(1) Individuals applying for licensure to practice direct entry midwifery must meet the requirements of OAR 331-030-0000 in addition to the provisions of this rule.
(2) Applicants must submit an application form prescribed by the agency, which must contain the information listed in OAR 331-030-0000(5), and be accompanied by payment of the application and license fees, and include the following:
(a) Documentation of education as outlined in OAR 332-015-0040.
(b) Documentation of minimum clinical experiences as outlined in OAR 332-015-0010(2) and 332-015-0040.
(c) Current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation for adults and newborns, which includes newborn bag and mask ventilation.
(d) Documentation of required education in approved legend drugs and devices as provided in OAR 332-015-0070 if applying for the license endorsement.
(e) Written plan for emergency transport for mother and/or newborn.
(f) Submission of satisfactory evidence of passage of the NARM examination, which may include official documentation of a passing score of the Certified Professional Midwife (CPM) examination, or copy of the applicant's CPM credential issued by the North American Registry of Midwives (NARM). Copies of examination results or other documentation provided by the applicant are subject to NARM verification.
(3) Applicants must attest by their signature on the application form to having received and read a copy of the Oregon laws and rules governing the practice of direct entry midwifery.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 687.420 & 687.485
Stats. Implemented: ORS 687.420 & 687.485
Hist.: DEM 1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 6-15-94; DEM 1-1998, f.
2-27-98, cert. ef. 3-1-98; DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02 cert. ef. 3-1-02;
DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert. ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0040
Education
(1) All applicants must have completed the following minimum core competencies adapted from the 1997 Edition of the Midwives Alliance of North America (MANA) and approved by the Board:
(a) General Knowledge and Skills: The midwife provides care incorporating certain concepts, skills and knowledge from a variety of health and social sciences, including but not limited to:
(A) Communication, counseling and teaching skills.
(B) Human anatomy and physiology relevant to childbearing.
(C) Community standards of care for women and their developing infants during the childbearing cycle, including midwifery and bio-technical medical standards and the rationale for and limitations of such standards.
(D) Health and social resources in the community.
(E) Significance of and methods for documentation of care through the childbearing cycle.
(F) Informed decision-making.
(G) The principles and appropriate application of clean and aseptic technique and universal precautions.
(H) The selection, use and care of the tools and other equipment employed in the provision of midwifery care.
(I) Human sexuality, including indications of common problems and indications for counseling.
(J) Ethical considerations relevant to reproductive health.
(K) The grieving process.
(L) Knowledge of cultural variations.
(M) Knowledge of common medical terms.
(N) The ability to develop, implement and evaluate an individualized plan for midwifery care.
(O) Woman-centered care, including the relationship between the mother, infant and their larger support community.
(P) Knowledge of various health care modalities as they apply to the childbearing cycle.
(b) Care During Pregnancy (Antepartum): The midwife provides health care, support and information to women throughout pregnancy. The midwife determines the need for consultation or referral as appropriate. The midwife uses a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes the following:
(A) Identification, evaluation and support of maternal and fetal well-being throughout the process of pregnancy.
(B) Education and counseling for the childbearing cycle.
(C) Preexisting conditions in a woman's health history, which are likely to influence her well-being when she becomes pregnant.
(D) Nutritional requirements of pregnant women and methods of nutritional assessment and counseling.
(E) Changes in emotional, psychosocial and sexual variations that may occur during pregnancy.
(F) Environmental and occupational hazards for pregnant women.
(G) Methods of diagnosing pregnancy.
(H) Basic understanding of genetic factors, which may indicate the need for counseling, testing or referral.
(I) Basic understanding of the growth and development of the unborn baby.
(J) Indications for, risks and benefits of bio-technical screening methods and diagnostic tests used during pregnancy.
(K) Anatomy, physiology and evaluation of the soft and bony structures of the pelvis.
(L) Palpation skills for evaluation of the fetus and uterus.
(M) The causes, assessment and treatment of the common discomforts of pregnancy.
(N) Identification of, implications of and appropriate treatment for various infections, disease conditions and other problems, which may affect pregnancy.
(O) Special needs of the Rh(D)-negative woman.
(c) Care During Labor, Birth and Immediately Thereafter (Intrapartum): The midwife provides health care, support and information to women throughout labor, birth and the hours immediately thereafter. The midwife determines the need for consultation or referral as appropriate. The midwife uses a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes the following:
(A) The normal processes of labor and birth.
(B) Parameters and methods for evaluating maternal and fetal well-being during labor, birth and immediately thereafter, including relevant historical data.
(C) Assessment of the birthing environment, assuring that it is clean, safe and supportive, and that appropriate equipment and supplies are on hand.
(D) Emotional responses and their impact during labor, birth and immediately thereafter.
(E) Comfort and support measures during labor, birth and immediately thereafter.
(F) Fetal and maternal anatomy and their interactions as relevant to assessing fetal position and the progress of labor.
(G) Techniques to assist and support the spontaneous vaginal birth of the baby and placenta.
(H) Fluid and nutritional requirements during labor, birth and immediately thereafter.
(I) Assessment of and support for maternal rest and sleep as appropriate during the process of labor, birth and immediately thereafter.
(J) Causes of, evaluation of and appropriate treatment for variations which occur during the course of labor, birth and immediately thereafter.
(K) Emergency measures and transport procedures for critical problems arising during labor, birth or immediately thereafter.
(L) Understanding of and appropriate support for the newborn's transition during the first minutes and hours following birth.
(M) Familiarity with current bio-technical interventions and technologies which may be commonly used in a medical setting.
(N) Evaluation and care of the perineum and surrounding tissues.
(d) Care After Delivery (Postpartum Care): The midwife provides health care, support and information to women throughout the postpartum period. The midwife determines the need for consultation or referral as appropriate. The midwife uses a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes but is not limited to the following:
(A) Anatomy and physiology of the mother during the postpartum period.
(B) Lactation support and appropriate breast care including evaluation of, identification of and treatments for problems with nursing.
(C) Parameters and methods for evaluating and promoting maternal well-being during the postpartum period.
(D) Causes of, evaluation of and treatment for maternal discomforts during the postpartum period.
(E) Emotional, psychosocial and sexual variations during the postpartum period.
(F) Maternal nutritional requirements during the postpartum period including methods of nutritional evaluation and counseling.
(G) Causes of, evaluation of and treatments for problems arising during the postpartum period.
(H) Support, information and referral for family planning methods, as the individual woman desires.
(e) Newborn Care: The entry-level midwife provides health care to the newborn during the postpartum period and support and information to parents regarding newborn care. The midwife determines the need for consultation or referral as appropriate. The midwife uses a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes the following:
(A) Anatomy, physiology and support of the newborn's adjustment during the first days and weeks of life.
(B) Parameters and methods for evaluating newborn wellness including relevant historical data and gestational age.
(C) Nutritional needs of the newborn.
(D) Community standards and state laws regarding indications for, administration of and the risks and benefits of prophylactic bio-technical treatments and screening tests commonly used during the neonatal period.
(E) Causes of, assessment of, appropriate treatment and emergency measures for newborn problems and abnormalities.
(f) Professional, Legal and Other Aspects: The entry-level midwife assumes responsibility for practicing in accord with these core competencies. The midwife uses a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes the following:
(A) National documents concerning the art and practice of Midwifery.
(B) The principles and practice of data collection as relevant to midwifery care.
(C) Statutes and administrative rules governing the practice of midwifery in the local jurisdiction.
(D) Various sites, styles and modes of practice within the larger midwifery community.
(E) A basic understanding of maternal/child health care delivery systems in the local jurisdiction.
(F) Awareness of the need for midwives to share their knowledge and experience.
(g) Well-woman Care and Family Planning: Depending upon education, the entry-level midwife may provide family planning and well-woman care. The practicing midwife may also choose to meet the following core competencies with additional education. In either case, the midwife provides care, support and information to women regarding their overall reproductive health, using a foundation of knowledge and/or skill which includes the following:
(A) Understanding of the normal life cycle of women.
(B) Evaluation of the woman's well-being including relevant historical data.
(C) Causes of, evaluation of and treatments for problems associated with the female reproductive system and breasts.
(D) Information on, provision of or referral for various methods of contraception.
(E) Issues involved in decision-making regarding unwanted pregnancies and resources for counseling and referral.
(2) The education requirements may be satisfied by a combination of the following:
(a) Self study, including attending workshops, studying textbooks, reviewing video and audio tapes;
(b) Completion of education programs, including seminars, lectures, or classes;
(c) Participation in birth experiences as evidenced by letters from primary birth attendant and supported by delivery summaries, statistical data forms and/or prenatal summaries, and/or client provided documentation of such participation. If a client provides information, the client's consent for disclosure of medical records should be included. In the alternative, client-identifying information should be removed from the records.
(3) In the alternative to (2) above, education requirements may be met by satisfactory completion of certain midwifery education programs plus additional clinical experience, or by programs, which include clinical experience. Those applicants who have been awarded a NARM CPM credential or a certificate of completion or diploma from a MEAC accredited program will satisfy Board education requirements as long as they meet the standards of OAR 332-015-0010(2).
NOTE: A list of approved education programs is on file and available for review at the board office.
[ED. NOTE: Tables referenced are available from the agency.]
Stat. Auth.: ORS 183, 687.420, 687.480 & 687.485
Stats. Implemented: ORS 183, 687.420, 687.480 & 687.485
Hist.: DEM 1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 6-15-94; DEM 1-1998, f.
2-27-98, cert. ef. 3-1-98; DEM 2-1998, f. 4-14-98, cert. ef. 4-15-98;
DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02 cert. ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04,
cert. ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0050
NARM Midwifery Examination
(1) The Board has selected the Certified Professional Midwifery examination administered by the North American Registry of Midwives (NARM) as its qualifying examination. Individual applicants are responsible for payment of all NARM application, examination, national certification or other fees directly to NARM.
(2) Applicants who meet the education and/or training requirements and achieve a passing score on the examination must request certification of the passing score be sent from the North American Registry of Midwives to the agency as a prerequisite to application.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 676.615, 687.480, 687.485
Stats. Implemented: ORS 676.615, 687.480, 687.485
Hist.: DEM 1-1994, f. & cert. ef. 6-15-94; DEM 1-1998, f.
2-27-98, cert. ef. 3-1-98; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert. ef.
7-1-04
332-015-0060
Application for Licensure Based on Equivalency
(1) An applicant who is currently licensed to practice direct entry midwifery in another state or who has been licensed within the past three years and who has not had a license suspended or revoked is eligible for licensure by equivalency.
(2) The requirements for licensure by equivalency are as follows:
(a) A completed application form and required documentation listed in OAR 332-015-0030;
(b) In lieu of documentation listed in OAR 332-015-0030(2)(f) evidence satisfactory to the Board that applicant has passed another state sponsored exam which the Board finds to be the equivalent of the NARM exam;
(c) Affidavit of Licensure from another state. An original signed and sealed or stamped form issued upon the request of an applicant licensed in another state and mailed directly to the agency by the state;
(d) Current certification in cardiopulmonary resuscitation for adults and newborns, which includes newborn bag and mask ventilation;
(e) Documentation of required education in approved legend drugs and devices as provided in OAR 332-015-0070.
(f) A written plan for emergency transport;
(g) Applicants shall attest by their signature on the application form to having received and read a copy of the Oregon laws and rules governing the practice of direct entry midwifery.
(h) Payment of the application and original license fees.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 676.605, 676.615, 687.420, 687.430, 687.485
Stats. Implemented: ORS 676.605, 676.615, 687.420, 687.430,
687.485
Hist.: DEM 1-1998, f. 2-27-98, cert. ef. 3-1-98; DEM 1-2001(Temp), f.
& cert. ef. 10-1-01 thru 3-29-02; DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02 cert.
ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert. ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0065
License Endorsement
(1) A licensed midwife must complete the Board prescribed education requirements in OAR 332-015-0070 to be issued a license endorsement that authorizes access to and administration of legend drugs and devices.
(2) As of April 1, 2004, all Direct Entry Midwives applying for a new, renewal or reactivated license must have completed the Board prescribed education requirements in OAR 332-015-0070.
Stat. Auth.: ORS 676.605, 676.615, 687.485, 687.493
Stats. Implemented: ORS 676.605, 676.615, 687.485, 687.493
Hist.: DEM 1-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-1-01 thru 3-29-02; DEM
1-2002, f. 2-25-02 cert. ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert.
ef. 7-1-04
332-015-0070
Approved Legend Drugs and Devices Prescribed Education
To be granted a license endorsement authorizing access to administer legend drugs and devices an applicant or licensee must successfully complete the Basic Program Curriculum consisting of 40 clock hours of instruction in the approved curriculum. Each licensed midwife shall also complete the Renewal Program every four years, consisting of 12.5 clock hours of continuing education. The Basic Program and the Renewal Program must be taught by a MEAC accredited or pre-accredited school, the Oregon Midwifery Council or by an organization authorized by the Board to provide continuing education. A list of approved sources of instruction shall be available from the agency. Both the Basic Program and the Renewal Program are comprised of theory, hands on practice and skills testing for competency.
(1) The Basic Program consists of:
(a) EIGHT CLOCK HOURS in Pharmacology covering drugs listed in OAR 332-025-0040 and 332-025-0050;
(A) Mechanism of Pharmacological Action;
(B) Indications;
(C) Therapeutic Effects;
(D) Side Effects/Adverse Reactions;
(E) Contraindications;
(F) Incompatibilities/Drug Interactions; and
(G) Drug administration including:
(i) Dosage;
(ii) Dosage Form and Packaging;
(iii) Routes of Administration;
(iv) Onset of Action;
(v) Peak Effect; and
(vi) Duration of Action.
(b) TWO CLOCK HOURS of administration of medications through injection, which includes:
(A) Universal precautions including the use and disposal of sharps;
(B) Equipment including:
(i) Needles;
(ii) Filter Needles (for use with glass ampules);
(iii) Syringes;
(iv) Skin surface disinfectants; and
(v) Medication containers (ampules, multi- and single-use vials).
(C) Appropriate injection sites;
(D) Procedures for drawing up and administering drugs;
(E) Special case: Administration of Medications Intravenously; and
(F) Care of equipment.
(c) SIXTEEN CLOCK HOURS in advanced treatment of shock, which includes:
(A) Theory of shock;
(B) Non-invasive treatment of shock;
(C) Intravenous fluid therapy;
(D) Purpose of IV fluid therapy;
(E) Equipment;
(F) Appropriate sites;
(G) Procedure;
(H) Rate of administration; and
(I) Care of equipment.
(d) SIX CLOCK HOURS in Maternal and neonatal resuscitation including:
(A) Basic life support techniques;
(B) Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR);
(C) Use of oxygen; and
(D) Positive pressure ventilation (bag, valve, mask).
(e) EIGHT CLOCK HOURS in suturing including:
(A) Assessing the degree of damage for repair;
(B) Use of local anesthetic;
(C) Equipment including:
(i) Suture;
(ii) Needles; and
(iii) Instruments.
(D) Use of needle holder and working with curved needle;
(E) Knot tying (Instrument knot);
(F) Basic stitching techniques including:
(i) Interrupted;
(ii) Basting;
(iii) Lock Blanket; and
(iv) Running mattress.
(G) Repairing the simple first-degree tear; and
(H) Repairing a second-degree tear.
(2) The Renewal Program consists of 12.5 clock hours drawn for the subjects covered in the Basic Program.
(3) The requirements in subsection (1), for the Basic Program Curriculum consisting of 40 clock hours of instruction in the approved curriculum, must be completed within the four years immediately before the date of application for licensed endorsement in legend drugs and devices.
(4) Authority for licensed direct entry midwives to access and administer legend drugs and devices is contingent upon meeting continuing education requirements as a condition of license renewal. Refer to OAR 332-020-0010.
(5) A copy of Board approved curriculum objectives will be retained on file at the agency and made available upon receipt of a written request and payment of an administrative fee for acquiring public records. Refer to OAR 331-010-0030.
Stat.
Auth.: ORS 676.615, 687.485 & 687.493
Stats.
Implemented: ORS 676.615, 687.485 & 687.493
Hist.:
DEM 1-2001(Temp), f. & cert. ef. 10-1-01 thru 3-29-02; DEM 1-2002, f. 2-25-02
cert. ef. 3-1-02; DEM 1-2004, f. 6-29-04, cert. ef. 7-1-04; DEM 2-2008(Temp), f.
9-15-08 cert ef. 10-1-08 thru 3-30-09; DEM 1-2009, f. 3-31-09, cert. ef. 4-1-09
Alphabetical Index by Agency Name
Numerical Index by OAR Chapter Number
Search the Text of the OARs
Questions about Administrative Rules?
Link to the Oregon Revised Statutes (ORS)
Return to Oregon State Archives Home Page